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==Philosophy==
== Inclusive Bible ==


I have removed the following sentences (and corresponding references) from the "Evolutionary Process" section as it gives the false impression that metaphysics is somehow "over" in analytic philosophy and philosophy in general, arguably glossing over and/or ignoring the work done in the past few decades done by Kripke, Putnam, Lewis, Armstrong and many others. They read:
The Inclusive Bible does exist, see here: http://www.amazon.com/Inclusive-Bible-First-Egalitarian-Translation/dp/1580512143 ] (]) 03:58, 27 April 2008 (UTC)


::''...nor in philosophy. ] widely considers speculative ] to be outside the reach of ] and scientific scrutiny.'' <small><span class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 08:35, 31 March 2011 (UTC)</span></small><!-- Template:Unsigned --> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->
:Thank you, it is such a surprising and unprecedented interpretation of the text that I simply thought it was a prank. Not so I now see. Indeed, since October last year, a web-designer (]) has offered a version of the Bible and a funky, small ''Australian'' Catholic publisher (]) have it in print for us. Good on all of them.
:It is, however, certainly ]. The subtitle of the book inadvertantly excludes itself because, as I'd endorse, it is the ''first'' with this pronoun for this passage. However, it is far from the first "inclusive" translation. The New Internation Version and others have editions with ''inclusive'' in the title. Additionally, many translations note in prefaces that their approach to translation includes various types of policy which they call ''inclusive''.
:I suppose the argument would be that this is the first ''truly'' inclusive version. If the John example is anything to go by, it may very well be so, since it is willing to not only ignore gender marking in the original, but actually construe this in an ''exclusive'' way and contrary to the text. I can't see how ''she'' for Holy Spirit is in any way inclusive of men and masculinity. What a wonderful bundle of contradictions.
:Whatever this edition may prove to be, it is certainly not yet representative of anything much more than a cool web-designer, who is anything but orthodox in his connections with Christianity (see ], and an open-minded publisher willing to connect him to people who would like to support his work. It does not merit space in an article devoted to outlining the diversity between major religious traditions, rather than comprehensively treating marginal positions at the fringes of these traditions.
:It's a lot of fun, but it's not a serious contribution to this article I'm afraid. But don't take my word for it. If you want to appeal my deletion of it, the obvious place to go would be Wikiproject:Christianity to get a Christian consensus on how representative this edition of the Bible actually is of the "Gender of God in Christianity", for that is the topic here of course.
:Cheers ] (]) 05:35, 27 April 2008 (UTC)


==Son of God==
Nope, sounds perfectly reasonable. I'd say inclusive language (including feminine imagery) is more common than you might think, I know today in church we sang a song from our hymnal that uses she for the Spirit (She Flies On) and we're the largest protestant church in Canada, so I'm not in complete agreement that its as marginal an opinion as you might believe, but yes, I do agree with most of what you say, and totally understand the belief that it might be a prank. Cool. ] (]) 21:32, 27 April 2008 (UTC)


The issue of "son of God" or "Son of God" is barely relevant to the article, but since Jeffro has raised it again, and the issues do have some circumstantial relationship to the article, I'll make a second brief response here. I trust Jeffro would not argue that "Jesus Christ, son of God" ''must'' be correct. In 99% of uses, ''son'' is appositional, an atheist describing Christian belief would write, "Jesus Christ, Son of God". It would be possible, though I'd love to see a source attesting it, to say "Jesus Christ, son of God", just as one might say "Adam, son of God" or "David, son of God". Here the intent is "Adam, son of God", the lower case is shorthand for a non-unique representative of a class (I believe ] suggests an implicit quantifier is introduced along with a new discourse variable in such constructions). In the same way, the capital is merely shorthand for the definite article in the case of Jesus, who some contend is the unique Son of God (while also being truly a son of God simultaneously).
:Personally, I simply follow the majority on this matter, understanding the Spirit to be unambiguously masculine. Overshadowing Mary and bring her to conception has been argued to be pretty robustly masculine. However, the hymn does resonate with a documented minority view offered at various times by lateral thinking "sound" Christian writers, a good deal more "dubious" ones, and a very large number of "heretical" ones. Perhaps at times, a feminine conception of the Spirit was a majority view in the Syrian Orthodox church. It was very probably the majority view in Gnosticism, arguably the first Christian heresy.
One thing that decieves people in cases like this is English possessive constructions. In Greek and Hebrew (the languages on which theories about Jesus are ultimately dependent), there are different ways of forming the constructions, which make the issue easier to see. Hebrew (typical of Semitic languages generally) uses a ] in which a chain of modifiers precede a noun in the ]. Long chains are possible—"the children of the wives of the advisors of '''the king'''" (the last is absolute, the modifiers are construct). Where the absolute noun is definite, the whole chain is definite. ''B'n Elohim'' or the Son of God is definite because ''Elohim'' God is definite. Circumlocutions make it possible to avoid the implication of definiteness if required. Greek has multiple ways of saying "Son of God" again with different nuances of definiteness—''ho tou theou quios'' (literally, the of-God Son) is a very natural Greek construction, it would use an indefinite particle were it to wish to avoid definiteness in regard to such statements.
:Although these views constitute only a very small minority in Christian writing, belief in a feminine Spirit never seems to have been isolated ''in itself'' as being heretical. Hence, the article includes this overall idea as a variation ''within'' Christianity significant to the topic at hand.
:My concern is only regarding Craig Smith's version of John, which is probably the first to use a feminine pronoun for the Spirit. Good for him. But at Wiki, when the best selling book of all time has masculine pronouns for the Spirit (in all languages where this is possible or necessary) has been released in a new version for only a few months, and differs in a theologically significant way, this hardly (yet) constitutes grounds for giving readers the impression it is an alternative widely available to Christians.
:It's not for Wiki to patrol the boundaries of orthodoxy. However it is its place to establish the boundaries of credibility. Smith, at this stage, doesn't reflect a clear professional assessment of the Greek of John. Among other things, the title of his version gives him scope to alter pronouns at will.
:Thanks for the source and the reply. God bless you and your church. ] (]) 00:10, 28 April 2008 (UTC)


I'd be very interested if Jeffro could provide some sources that show usage of Jesus being describe as "son of God" with a lower case "s". Otherwise, whatever he is suggesting regarding English syntax, might be true and I'm just missing his point, but is not particularly relevant, because it is hypothetical. Sources secular or devotional all use the capital, so even if I agreed with Jeffro, we'd be best off dropping it, because no consensus would form in opposition to the strong precedent of sources. What do you say Jeffro? Let sleeping dogs lie? ] (]) 01:46, 4 December 2008 (UTC)
::You are certainly following the majority, and there are many ways to interpret the passages regarding Mary and the Holy Spirit. A very large number of heretical ones? Dubious ones? Which groups? Yes, many heretical groups have used feminine language for the HS, but that doesn't prove anything. Catholics and most Protestants could use similar arguments to dismiss Baptists (i.e., the Mormons practice immersion and have memorialist views of the sacraments). Its largely apples and oranges because Baptists and Mormons are so dissimilar that even areas of "common ground" theologically may not be so common, but in fact, coincidence. Likewise, the fact that conservative and mainline theologians such as Pinnock and Moltmann hold a view which might overlap in a way with the Branch Davidians is so irrelevant I'm shocked you seem to use it. Okay, maybe I'm being a little melodramatic, but you can see why, right?
::I am also unaware of any denomination which teaches, or any reputable Christian theologian who teaches that a view of the HS as feminine is a dividing line between orthodoxy and heresy. By the way, you are incorrect with regard to Gnosticism. Only a small minority of Gnostic groups embraced trinitarianism at all. See Elaine Pagels, "The Gnostic Gospels," ps. 48-69. The Valentians were among many Gnostic binitarians who recognized a divine couple, Father & Mother. Many of these binitarians viewed God as "masculofeminine" but others saw this language as entirely metaphorical. Among those Gnostics writings which present a trinity with a feminine HS, yes they were non-orthodox in their teachings (although the Gospel to the Hebrews is a possible exception since it exists only in secondary sources and so little of it is known). Finally, a large number of Gnostics who focused on the feminine used the Wisdom/Sophia imagery, which is entirely unrelated in those systems to the gender of the HS or to trinitiarianism period.
::Despite my barbs, you are certainly right with regards to Smith. While a very few early versions of Scripture in Syriac might have used feminine pronouns for the Spirit, this is conjecture and merely serves your point. A person might argue that there would be nothing theologically wrong with using feminine pronouns in translation, but you are right that it is historically innovative and irrelevant to this discussion. And you are right, it does disservice a formally equivalent translation of the Greek in at least a few passages of John.] (]) 21:47, 9 May 2008 (UTC)


:I "raised it again" purely because it seemed to be the only thing that might remotely resemble a basis for your claim that I had argued with the OED (which remains unclear). Insofar as your statement that ''atheists'' would capitalise (I've determined that you're also Australian so I'll drop the US spelling here) 'Son of God', I think they would be the ''least'' likely to do so.
:::Thanks for your comments here. You present a lot of information in only three paragraphs. A lot of which is highly relevant to the Christianity section of this article, both as regards content and as regards methodology. I think I happen to agree with most of what you say on both points, probably because we are both aware of the overwhelming source material that backs these things.
:To clarify my position on this so there is no doubt... if using the phrase as a ''title'' ('<nowiki> </nowiki> Son of God'), it would indeed properly be capitalised. In a statement such as 'Jesus was the son of God' in the same manner as 'Albert Einstein was the son of Hermann Einstein', it would be proper to use 'son', though 'Jesus was the Son of God' would be correct in the manner of 'Charles is the Prince of Wales'. No statement herein should be inferred as any opinion as to the existence of a god, gods, God, or to any progeny of such entities of any gender, or no gender.--] (]) 02:38, 4 December 2008 (UTC)
:::Regarding the Branch Davidian material, it's not ''my'' material. In fact, the only material of mine in this article is corrections to treatment of the Greek (which was what got me involved in this article in the first place). I simply sourced what was already in the Christian section, and revised text so that it better reflected what was in the sources.
:::I seem to recall long talk page discussions between people associated with the Branch Davidian collection and myself, in which I encouraged them (supported by an ex-member, to have their own section). In the context of this article, I think they are a notable group, because the gender of the Holy Spirit is foundational to their group's distinctiveness. However, I don't think they reflect a notable tradition within Christianity itself. This actually allowed them to provide a much fuller treatment of their own position than by "weasling" the Christian article to include their doctrines as typical legitimate alternatives. Much better to recruit "mainstream" support into their section, than to offer their views as challenges within the "mainstream" section. Perhaps this was not a good thing, it was just the consensus at the time.
:::Anyway, if I understand your post correctly, the main reflections seems to turn on "gender of Spirit" and "boundary of orthodoxy". The Church of Christ famously avoids tests of orthodoxy "no creed but Christ". Catholicism especially, and some Protestant groups as well, major on such matters, though. My impression is that the gender of the Spirit is an "incidental" kind of doctrine, and it is only groups with very "sensitive boundaries" or groups very sensitive about gender that really even consider it. If you like, an argument to the masculinity of the Spirit from the history of church literature is almost an argument from silence! It has been dealt with, but it has not been dwelt upon (if you'll forgive me, the Spirit does the dwelling upon;).
:::I personally have well defined views regarding both "boundaries" and "gender" as regards Christianity. Explicitly excluding them in editing at Wiki is easy, since Christianity means something different at Wiki than it does in my personal discourse. But I'm happy to admit that I am a consciencious objector to "doctrinal statements" other than '']''. I believe the other four Reformation "''Sola''"s, but these are derivative (imo). This makes me simultaneously more liberal and more fundamentalist than most Christians, in the Wiki understanding of Christianity, and makes my own Christian faith completely non-notable.
:::Regarding gender and Christianity, it follows that I do not consider it the boundary of orthodoxy, only the Bible is that on my view. However, my opinion is that the Bible speaks to gender issues and these are actually the number one practical outworking of Biblical faith. I would suggest it is the truth of the Bible, and the number one priority of gender that explains why even unbelievers tend to consider sexual matters ethical issues, and ethical issues of a peculiarly high order, whether they argue for liberty, legislation, freedom or punishment.
:::Gender may not be the ''imago Dei'', but it is so closely associated with it, that imbalance in worship and imbalance in gender go hand in hand from the beginning (Gen 1-3), seen consistently in the sequel until reconciled in the final chapters of Revelation.
:::Please note, none of this is in the article (and should not be, of course). But I think it bears on why many might visit the article, and what motivates those of us who seek to edit or comment here.
:::Thanks again for your wide-ranging musing over the issues related to the Christian section. I hope mine contribute at least a little in the same "brainstorming" fashion. :) ] (]) 02:08, 10 May 2008 (UTC)


::You're Australian! He he, drat. Work hard while I'm away mate, 'cause Tim and I are serious about scrutinising things when we return. Hmmm, you're Aussie, that ''does'' make it harder to tell you what I really think. ;) Don't drink and drive over the silly season and avagoodweekend! ] (]) 15:53, 4 December 2008 (UTC)
== Problems with the intro ==


The Bible states (using theism) that God created man in his image, this man being exactly that: a man, only after the men was asleep
# ''"Many ] believe in"''. Little clumsy to say that religions "believe in" anything. Possible alternatives: 'Involve', 'include', 'postulate', 'describe'.
and a rib was removed was a woman created. Since god created a woman for the man and man was created first, God must be a man, since he created the first being in his image.--] (]) 03:12, 9 December 2009 (UTC)
# ''"a ]"''. Common nouns don't capitalise. If you mean 'a god', use 'a god'. If you mean 'God', use 'God'.
# ''"or gods"''. Again: The title is specific to ]. Where's all this "gods" guff coming from?
# ''"regarding ] as it applies to ] persons"''. More guff. Gender of ''God''.
] (]) 08:55, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


== polytheism/pantheism ==
#"Whoever believes in him will be saved." "Whosoever believes will be called children of God." What do reliable sources say religions are? The ones I read describe them as traditional metaphysical belief systems. The proposed alternatives to colloquial and academic usage seem, how should I put it, "clumsy"?
#In the context of monotheistic religions God is capitalized, because there is only one referent. Neither Jews nor Christians think God is a proper noun. The Hebrew scriptures know God as Yahweh and the New Testament has a complex trinitarian idea. In Islam, Allah is not merely a title but also a name. So, ''Allah is the one and only God'', would be an appropriate statement. The current context is unusual but not unique. You'll need to provide a source that excludes the possibility of ''a God''.
#You are contradicting yourself. If belief is such a fuzzy thing. How come you assume there is only one God. That's not what Hindus believe. You are entitled to your POV, even if it is two contradictory POVs, however, the article should present all notable POVs from the NPOV, which means not begging the question in favour of only one God.
#Not guff. Read Christian theology on the ] — three ''persons'', one ''God''. The terminology inadvertently lends itself to inclusion of putative gods other than the one Christian triune God. Handy for this kind of article.
There are complexities to handling terminology in an article like this, and "guff" is precisely what I keep removing from the article. People who believe there is no God, and no gods either, often inadvertently err, because they are unfamiliar with the range of different beliefs. People preoccupied by their own personal conviction that there is only one God, who they know about, also overlook things at times. Then there are people who believe the politics of gender trumps any other linguistic issues, but that is a POV, and here, clarity and neutrality rule, not social justice or proselytism.


I don't really have any input on the JCI issues. However, I did notice that the "Polytheism" section sort of describes a form of pantheism. In a nutshell, Polytheism is the belief in many distinct gods, of various genders (including neutral or hermaphroditic - the Norse Loki does gender switching IIRC). They may or may not source from (or really be part of) one older god. Pantheism is the belief that many gods are worshiped separately, but are actually all one. (The reason I haven't stuffed this into the article is that I haven't gone and dug up sources yet.)
I'm not accusing Ilkali of any of the above, but I think you need to interact with a fair few sources and ideas more explicitly before I'm going to be able to see any coherence to your comments. Looking forward to that. ] (]) 09:25, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


But the polytheistic stuff seems somewhat out of place here. Polytheists don't have to ask what gender Thor is, or Diana, or Artemis. Do the non-JCI religions even belong here, or is the article really about "The gender of God in the Judeo-Christian-Islamic traditions"?
:''""Whoever believes in him will be saved." "Whosoever believes will be called children of God." What do reliable sources say religions are?"''. Do you seriously not recognise the distinction between adherents of a religion and the religion itself? Yes, ''people'' believe in gods. Religions don't. Religions don't have minds.
:''"In the context of monotheistic religions God is capitalized, because there is only one referent. Neither Jews nor Christians think God is a proper noun"''. Most Jews and Christians don't know what a proper noun is. I suspect you don't either. The presence of a determiner is prima facie evidence for this particular token being a common noun, as is its conjunction with another common noun (''gods''). The MoS clearly states that common nouns do not capitalise.
:''"You are contradicting yourself. If belief is such a fuzzy thing. How come you assume there is a God."'' ...what? ] (]) 09:17, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


--] (]) 02:55, 29 January 2010 (UTC)
::We have a style difference on the first point. I prefer concise language. "Religions believe ..." This works by ] and cuts out "guff" like, "The people who belong to religions believe ..." I do write the latter kind of sentence myself too sometimes, but only when the context means such precision is really necessary. There is no ambiguity here. And I detest guff. So I need more pursuasion to accept it.
::Bible is a common noun that capitalizes. It is also a book that doesn't receive italics. There are all sorts of exceptions to various rules that creep in by convention and make sense in context. You have an unusual understanding of determiners, which frequently precede proper nouns the ''United States'', the ''Thirty Years War'', the '']'', the ''Federal Beureau of Intelligence'', the ''Arctic'', the ''Earth''. Please don't use disparaging comments of other editors or of religious groups. Attack the issue not the people. If you know ''prima facie'', you will also know ''ad hominem''.
::Since you've now clarified what your first point was, I see you weren't contradicting yourself, just being terse to the point of ambiguity. Your problem with religions believing has to do with style, not epistemology. ] (]) 09:37, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


Yes, I know I reopened a can of worms, but the way the article reads the non-JCI sections are just after-thoughts or bolt-ons.
:::''"We have a style difference on the first point. I prefer concise language"''. Metonymy has its limits. If I told you that "Judaism doesn't eat pigs", you might deduce that I am using the religion's name to reference its adherents, but you would (hopefully) not consider it an elegant statement. The same applies here, albeit to a lesser degree. And by proposing an excessively lengthy alternative, you posit a false dichotomy. The text I used - "God is a component of many religions" - is roughly as long as "Many religions believe in God" but doesn't have the literal inaccuracy.
:::''"Bible is a common noun that capitalizes"''. And the reason we know to capitalise it is that the MoS says so. Guess what the MoS says about common noun ''god''.
:::''"Please don't use disparaging comments of other editors or of religious groups. Attack the issue not the people"''. If you're going to appeal to authorities, I have every right to comment on the reliability of those authorities. Furthermore, I suggest you revisit the definition of an ad hominem. "X's opinion on grammar should be ignored because he's fat" is an ad hominem. "X's opinion on grammar should be ignored because he doesn't know anything about grammar" is not.
:::''"you weren't contradicting yourself, just being terse to the point of ambiguity"''. Surface ambiguity isn't a problem when people competently apply the principle of charity. You had to choose between the literal, intended meaning (that religions are incapable of belief) and an insane meaning that denied that theists believe in gods. Tip: ''Don't pick the insane meaning''. ] (]) 11:07, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


--] (]) 03:20, 29 January 2010 (UTC)
:You added more to your original reply after I had responded to it. I'll address the additional material here.
:''"Read Christian theology on the ] — three ''persons'', one ''God''"''. Trinitarian doctrines are an abuse of language. Is each member of the trinity individually God? Then it is sufficient to describe God. Is each member not individually God? Then they cannot be the subject of a 'Gender of God' article. In no case is it necessary to talk about "divine persons" in the intro. ] (]) 11:07, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


:The polytheism section doesn't contain any material about gender at all, so I'm going to ] and remove it. --] (]) 12:18, 1 February 2010 (UTC)
::There was an edit conflict when I tried to save each of my replies. So from my perspective, you replied to my comments before I completed them. No matter. You have three main points, all matters related to style. 1. Religions are abstract, where adherents are concrete and do the actual believing. 2. Although God is a proper noun from a monotheistic perspective, references to a generic god in a polytheistic or atheist context use a common noun. 3. Despite being a widely read person, ''divine person'' is a ] that has not been part of your personal vocabulary until engaging with this article. This is likely to be true of other educated readers, involves reader surprise and hence infelicity of expression.


::Ah, that's what else was bothering me about it - the section as written had nothing to do with the topic! Thanks for the sanity check. --] (]) 03:46, 2 February 2010 (UTC)
::All three points seem fair enough to me, however, none of them are decisive. In fact, I've argued above that literature in this topic area (and sometimes in general) follows conventions, and the lead of this article follows them.


== ] ==
::You haven't defended the ambiguity of your first point, since religions don't ''postulate'' or ''describe'' either, unless you permit synecdoche, in which case there's no objection to them ''believing'' either. I read you charitably, assuming your first point was merely "clumsy", not self-contradictory. In the end I actually think we agree, synecdoche is so second nature to readers that a wide range of verbs can be used in this context. ''Belief'' seems to me to be the lexical selection of choice because of the simplicity of the word. However, the immediate objection I raised was the implicit weasling I saw in the proposed alternatives.
::*(a) God is a component of many religions
::*(b) Many religions believe in God
::To me, (a) is "guffish", to use your phrase, it's unclear, what does component mean in this sentence? It's vague.
::*(c) Some schools of thought consider Oswald unlikely to be the assassin.
::*(d) All political parties believe in co-operative effort towards achieving policy objectives.
::Still unconvinced.


Hello, all. Just wanted to point out that in the (bestselling?) book, "The Shack", God appears as a woman for most of the book (despite the name "Papa"). Shall I add that to the "Pop Culture" section? Or is a novel not considered Pop Culture?
::The word ''god'' is quite frequently used as a common noun, as in (slang) ''OMG!'' In full, this is ''Oh my god!'' This expression refers no further than the emotional reaction of the speaker. ''God'' has little more than superlative force. In fact, ancient semitic languages show evidence of similar use. ''Mother of all battles'' in some ancient dialects would idiomatically be expressed as ''a battle of god'', with no metaphysical implications. However, where a speaker intends reference to one, unique deity, the convention is to capitalize, even when this God is putative!
] (]) 22:32, 28 March 2010 (UTC)
::*"After this things get more philosophical, with a look at various arguments for a 'God' or at least something 'outside' the universe." — of Paul Davies, ''The Mind of God''.
::I should probably update the MoS if this isn't spelled out clearly. When ''god'' is a common noun it is lower case. When it is a proper noun it is upper case. Same as ''bible'' and many other words, eg: '] is the bible of the English language maven.' There are plenty of context where the distinction is helpful for clarity. This article is one such context.


:Excellent work of fiction for sure which was quite poplar and was also made in to a movie . . . I would answer your 2010 question as yes, it should go in to Pop Culture . . . just a note on the author's view that God is a black woman . . . Jesus depicted as a country type hick, no disrespect, and the Holy Spirit as a woman . . . i loved it . . . when I read God's word, the Bible, when i look at the Greek and the Hebrew and the Aramaic i too see God (Father Son Holy Spirit) a lot differently given studying the languages . . . ] (]) 19:22, 17 November 2023 (UTC)
::While I admire your use of synechdoche in, "Trinitarian doctrines are an abuse of language." Which language do they abuse? English? Or Greek? But regardless of what the semantic content of your statement may actually be, this really is not a POV a Wiki editor can carry into an article. Check the literature, God is ''personal'' in Abrahamic religions. This is fundamental to his nature. In polytheism, the personalities of divinities that are discussed, or implied via narrative. It is true that in ''philosophy'' God or gods have sometimes been approached as entities, however, in ''religion'' people do not worship ''things'' they worship ''beings'' and attribute personal characteristics. Divinity in human thought is super-human, but not impersonal. Sumerian has grammatical classes personal and impersonal and gods fall in the personal class.


== Orphaned references in ] ==
::Gender of God in linguistics and philosophy could be worthwhile additions to this article. In both, ''personhood'' features in the literature. The only place ''entity'' might possibly fit is in 20th century western philosophy, though I'm happy to be corrected on that. Attestations of ''entity'' and impersonal characterisation of God and gods in literature is not something I've explored, I imagine it would require fairly diligent research to uncover in reliable, notable sources.


I check pages listed in ] to try to fix reference errors. One of the things I do is look for content for ] in wikilinked articles. I have found content for some of ]'s orphans, the problem is that I found more than one version. I can't determine which (if any) is correct for ''this'' article, so I am asking for a sentient editor to look it over and copy the correct ref content into this article.
::I'm sorry, I'm not sure our discussion is very fair. I've spent a lot of time reading books about God and gods, from all sorts of PsOV. I can see sense in all the things you say, but they just don't interact with the conventions in the literature in the topic area. Now, I hate saying that, because it stinks. I hate feeling excluded from discussion of various topics because the students of that subject area have their very specific jargon. However, I have slowly come to respect why precision of expression in various areas actually helps people get on board. Despite remaining unconvinced, I'm impressed by and have enjoyed your rigorous challenges, and I'm happy to hear more. ] (]) 13:43, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


<b>Reference named "britannica":</b><ul>
:::''"There was an edit conflict when I tried to save each of my replies. So from my perspective, you replied to my comments before I completed them"''. Oh, I didn't mean to imply that you'd done anything underhanded. That is indeed what I did, although I wasn't aware at the time that they were incomplete.
<li>From ]: {{Harvnb|Britannica|1992}}</li>
:::''"2. Although God is a proper noun from a monotheistic perspective, references to a generic god in a polytheistic or atheist context use a common noun"''. No, that's not my point. My point is that, in any English-speaker's lexicon, there are two 'god' words with the same pronunciation but different syntactic status and meaning. One is a proper noun referencing the entity ], the other is a common noun denoting all deities.
<li>From ]: {{cite encyclopedia | year = 1988 | title = The Bahá'í Faith | encyclopedia = Britannica Book of the Year | publisher = Encyclopaedia Britannica | location = Chicago | id = {{ISBN|0852294867}}}}</li>
:::''"3. Despite being a widely read person, ''divine person'' is a ] that has not been part of your personal vocabulary until engaging with this article"''. I disagree again. The term is not unfamiliar or uncomfortable, I just don't think the sentence using it in this article is appropriate. I gave an argument for that position and you didn't reply to it.
<li>From ]: {{cite encyclopedia | year = 1988 | title = The Bahá'í Faith | encyclopedia = Britannica Book of the Year | publisher = Encyclopaedia Britannica | location = Chicago | id = {{ISBN|0-85229-486-7}}}}</li>
:::''"You haven't defended the ambiguity of your first point, since religions don't ''postulate'' or ''describe'' either, unless you permit synecdoche, in which case there's no objection to them ''believing'' either"''. I disagree with the claim that religions cannot literally postulate or describe. Neither verb, in my English, requires an volitional agent. And as I already explained, metonymy has its limits.
</ul>
:::''"I read you charitably, assuming your first point was merely "clumsy", not self-contradictory"''. It was neither. You should've picked option C.
:::''"the immediate objection I raised was the implicit weasling I saw in the proposed alternatives"''. How on Earth could one be more weasley than the other? In both, the relevant noun phrase is "many religions", and ''neither'' specifies which religions.
:::''"(a) is "guffish", to use your phrase, it's unclear, what does component mean in this sentence? It's vague"''. What ''could'' it mean?
:::''"The word ''god'' is quite frequently used as "''. This entire section of your reply is dedicated to explaining to me what I already explained to you: That proper nouns capitalise and common nouns don't. I already offered evidence for the word in question being a common noun: It is preceded by an indefinite article and conjoins with a common noun. Your counter-argument seems based on the fact that the entire noun phrase 'a god' is singular, which is true but irrelevant. Like most people, I only have one mother, but I say "I have a mother", not "I have a Mother".
:::''"Which language do they abuse? English? Or Greek? But regardless of what the semantic content of your statement may actually be, this really is not a POV a Wiki editor can carry into an article"''. But it's a POV an editor can carry. My position on the article is not based on that POV.
:::''"Check the literature, God is ''personal'' in Abrahamic religions. This is fundamental to his nature. In polytheism, the "''. Did you suddenly switch from the topic of the trinity to that of English pronouns? "It" is the most appropriate pronoun we have for an entity whose gender is not just indeterminate but ''undefined''. I have no objection, however, to replacing it with something non-pronominal.
:::Finally, this issue seems to have fallen by the wayside, so I'm reviving it: If we're talking about the gender of '''God''', there is no need to talk about any deities that are not God, making the 'or gods' pointless. ] (]) 14:32, 6 May 2008 (UTC)
:o.d. Well, that brings back my original difficulty with your objections (or with the title). We cannot assume one God, generic as this God may be. We could, perhaps, either remove Hinduism from the article, or change the article title; but I don't really like either option (they miss the intention of the entry). Instead, I think this article requires some neat handling of the lead, or the restoration of material that was previously deleted. I'm not sure the lead can bear all the weight, hence my post below, which I was in the middle of composing when you replied above. ''Divine person'', btw, avoids both a ] and the awful ''God or gods ... God or gods'', and has the advantage of introducing terminology from the literature.
:PS weasling is not about quantification. ] (]) 14:57, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


I apologize if any of the above are effectively identical; I am just a simple computer program, so I can't determine whether minor differences are significant or not. ]] 23:05, 28 March 2010 (UTC)
::''"We cannot assume one God, generic as this God may be"''. I'm still not sure you recognise the distinction between the common noun ''god'' and the proper noun ''God''. Polytheistic religions aren't a problem unless they describe two or more ] entities. That's not the case with Hinduism.
::''"''Divine person'', btw, avoids both a ] and the awful ''God or gods ... God or gods'', and has the advantage of introducing terminology from the literature."''. "or gods" is unnecessary, as argued above. 'Divine persons' is inappropriate because it denotes more than just God, and God is the only divine entity relevant to the article. "have a range of views regarding gender as it applies to divine persons" does not entail "have a range of views regarding gender as it applies to God".
::''"PS weasling is not about quantification"''. PS I asked you to demonstrate that one was more weasley than the other.
::Could you try to reply to the arguments I make? It's kind of irritating to spend time writing replies to your points only to see you ignore them completely. ] (]) 16:16, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


==] ] from the ]==
:::I beg your pardon! I've spent considerable time attempting to respond courteously to rude, ambiguous and erroneous points.
the AHD's indo european roots appendix states that the root for God is Gheu (ə) -. The root means: To call, invoke. I find it interesting that the other english word from this root is "giddy", as in insane or possessed. So god may be considered more of a verb than a noun, and genderless. hey, its not my research.] (]) 03:57, 11 January 2011 (UTC)
:::This article has always been about the way people view the gender of the deities of their religions.
:::That is what it will remain unless you gain consensus to delete Hinduism. If my experience of Wiki is anything to go by, that is not going to happen in the near future.
:::The best complexion I can put on your original comment is that you feel the article doesn't reflect the title. It deals with a mulitplicity of gods or Gods. It would be more acurately described as '''Gender of gods''', and I would almost agree.
:::There are many articles at Wiki with difficult titles for diverse reasons, but ''Gender of God'' is not such a bad title in some ways. Religions with essentially one God would all find it natural, and find their own views within a chronologically organised synoptic presentation of the views the major religions have on the subject. It is certainly a better title than ''God and gender''.
:::'''Gender of God''' works as a title because as a link or as a search term it is quite specific. However, once you hit the article, NPOV kicks in and transforms God into a variable that can take several values: God (Judaism), God (Christianity), or even god (Hinduism). ''God'' in the context of the lead of this article is a ''generic'' proper noun. It is technically a non refering term, hence taking an adjective of indefiniteness -- ''a'' -- in this case. It doesn't apply to Hinduism, where god is a common not a proper noun, so a disjunction is required to describe the scope of the article. The word ''gods'', although also generic, remains a bare plural as the indefinite marker for plurals in English is (arguably) a null marker.
:::The lead needs to describe the article, not the search term. This is the case with many redirects at Wiki. Again, for a variety of reasons, some articles are the end point of multiple redirections, some of which can involve significant semantic shifts. Shifts from plural to singular (or less often singular to plural -- ]) do not cause much surprise. Shifts from singular to generic are also generally no big deal ].
:::Is there room for confusion in this? Yes. But not a lot. In two years you're the first to suggest it. The syntax and typographic conventions involved are unusually complex, and explaining how they produce the semantics is also complex, but it is the explaining that is hard, not the actual sentences.
:::The sentences are easy, I'm happy to wait for a second opinion on any problem with them. The syntax has now been explained in as much detail as I have patience to cover. Thanks for your interest and your suggestions. ] (]) 17:24, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


== Candidate for deletion? ==
::::''"This article has always been about the way people view the gender of the deities of their religions"''. Then the title, which is specific to the deity ], is inappropriate.
::::''"That is what it will remain unless you gain consensus to delete Hinduism"''. Why would I want to delete Hinduism? You're the only one who's talked about that.
::::''"'''Gender of God''' works as a title because as a link or as a search term it is quite specific. However, once you hit the article, NPOV kicks in and transforms God into a variable that can take several values: God (Judaism), God (Christianity), or even god (Hinduism)"''. Linking and searching are non-issues. We have redirects for that kind of thing. If Misplaced Pages is to have a ] article, distinct from its ] article, it must take a stance that ''God'' references a specific entity, such that there is no way the term can reference a god that is not God.
::::''"It doesn't apply to Hinduism, where god is a common not a proper noun"''. The proper noun ''God'' is meaningful in the context of Hinduism, where it conventionally refers to ] or acts as a deictic indexing whatever manifestation the speaker worships. There is no problem with Hinduism being discussed in a Gender of God article.
::::''"I beg your pardon! I've spent considerable time attempting to respond courteously to rude, ambiguous and erroneous points"''. You've spent half that time attacking a position I don't hold and then blaming me for it, and half waffling about irrelevancies. In the few cases where you actually addressed something I said, you made some assertion and became suddenly blind to any challenges to it. I had to ask twice why "God is a component of many religions" is more 'weasley' than "Many religions believe in God", and still haven't had an answer. When you claimed that my preferred sentence was "vague", I asked you to explain how. I still haven't had an answer. When you (''erroneously'') identified the "religions believe" text as synecdoche, I pointed out that there are limits to metonymy and illustrated the point with an example. ''Still no answer''. If I am rude, it is because you seem completely uninterested in genuinely discussing the issue and yet are adamant that no changes be made to the article. After a certain time, it becomes difficult to assume good faith. ] (]) 18:16, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


Is it really necessary to have an article about the gender of an imaginary being, where gender is not a relevant concept anyway? ] (]) 12:09, 24 January 2011 (UTC)
I am no longer going to feed your trolling. I have answered every point you raise. You simply fail to acknowledge this. Extending discussion is pointless since you refuse to admit error, or entertain options other than your own.


Even if you're right about God being imaginary, WP has numerous articles about imaginary beings, including ]. Would you like to get rid of all of those articles? As for the relevance of concepts of gender to God, that is a topic of serious discussion among people who write about God, as well as those who worship God. ] (]) 07:20, 13 March 2011 (UTC)
From scholarly literature. Synecdoche with ''political parties'' and ''believe''. The same can be demonstrated from literature on religion with even more attestations.
*"''Political parties believe'' that they need more money." — R Johnston and C Pattie, 'New Labour, new electoral system, new electoral geographies?' ''Political Geography'', 2000.
*"Most of the ''political parties believe'' that they do not need to include female candidates." — R Tahri, "Women's Political Participation: The Case of Morocco", ''International IDEA/Electoral Institute of Southern Africa'', 2003.
*"The ''political parties believe'' the following probabilities to hold." — A Bhaduri, EB Barbier, 'Political Altruism of Transboundary Water Sharing', 2005.
*"If ''political parties believe'' the thesis." — A Finlayson, ''et''. ''al'', 'The Interpretive Approach in Political Science', ''The British Journal of Politics & International Relations'', 2004.


== Does God need a gender? ==
You have failed to establish any case. All you do is continue to write incoherent criticisms of my comments, without engaging with any of the extensive literature I allude to or quote from that supports them. Where any other reader might share concerns along the lines of yours, the answers lie in the discussion above. Extending discussion is pointless, since you've raised nothing new since the beginning, and those points have been addressed. You want to call God, ''god'', ''entity'' or ''it'' in the context of another article, go ahead — in this one, no. ] (]) 03:24, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


Is this topic still in discussion?
:''"I am no longer going to feed your trolling"''. Ah, there it is. The last resort.
God created male and female within material creation for the purpose of reproduction. Because humans are social beings sex and gender have relationship and social aspects for us. But since God is Spirit there is no need for gender. The use of He in referring to God is a condition of human language. "It" would be inappropriate. In Judaism and Christianity (O.T. and N.T.) God is sometimes called Father as an indication of a profoundly intimate and caring concern for us and our lives. God is above gender.--] (]) 20:59, 4 August 2012 (UTC)
:''"From scholarly literature. Synecdoche with ''political parties'' and ''believe'' "''. Yes, ''that's'' synecdoche, because political parties are composed of people; if the people weren't there, the parties would not exist. Religions are not composed of people, which is why the phenomenon in "religions believe" is metonymy, a superclass of synecdoche.
:''"All you do is continue to write incoherent criticisms of my comments"''. I'd ask you for examples, but we both know you don't have any. ] (]) 06:20, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


: That may be your belief. Other believers are equally adamant for theirs. Frex:
::No, ''religions believe'' is ] ''not'' ]. Synecdoche is a very broad term, metonymy is much more narrow. ''Parliament's Speaker told reporters ...'' utilizes a title derived from synecdoche ''not'' metonymy. Synecdoche does ''not'' imply metonymy, so metonymy cannot be a "superclass" (provide a reliable source that says contrary). The ''reverse'' is ''almost'' true. Since metonymy refers explicitly to a part or a whole while intending to be understood as refering to the other, it is very frequently also an example of synecdoche — ''A thousand swords marched ...'', warriors are often associated with swords. However, synecdoche need not, in fact follow — ''They heard the LORD God's sound walking in the Garden of Eden''. The sound was not walking, so this is metonymy, but sound is not normally associated with the LORD God, it is a circumlocution utilizing reference to part of the divinity or his actions to suggest the divinity himself in a reverentially indirect manner — metonymy yes, synecdoche no. These devices are independent ideas, hence we have two words. They overlap considerably, which leads some to get confused. You brought metonymy into this discussion, not I. ''Religions believe'' is synecdoche (as I pointed out), not metonymy (the ] you introduced).
:* {{citation | title = God is NOT Female | first = Mark | last = Henkel}}<!--URL blocked-->
:* {{citation | url = http://www.truthbearer.org/doctrine/original-plan-for-marriage/12/ | title = As I, Myself, KNOW the Spirit, I KNOW that God is NOT "Female" | first = Ike | last = Graham}}
:* {{citation | url = http://vaniquotes.org/God_is_not_female | title = Vaniquotes: God is not female }}
: It seems that if God exists, it has chosen not to resolve this dispute. So its gender, for those who care about it, shall remain an issue. ~ ] (]) 21:37, 4 August 2012 (UTC)


::I certainly didn't bring up the subject of God as female--however to clarify. Many languages do not have a pronoun especially for God. So the question is--what pronoun to use? So "He" for God (both capitalized) is often used.<br />
:::I'm splitting your comment because I replied to the below half of it before you posted the above half.
::For humans the pronouns used are "he" and "she." "It" is used usually for objects in English, or with pejorative intent (Latin-based languages are different). For a number of centuries references to humans used the terms "man," "men" and "mankind" with the unspoken implication that they included womenkind--their use certainly didn't exclude women. These usages involve the real limitations of human languages.<br />
:::''"No, ''religions believe'' is ] ''not'' ]. Synecdoche is a very broad term, metonymy is much more narrow"''. Other way around. You love to insert wikilinks, presumably to belittle your opponent, but have you considered clicking any of them yourself?
::But the use of He for God doesn't mean that God is a superhuman male. Genesis 1:27 says "God created man in His image....male and female He created them"<br />
:::''"These devices are independent ideas, hence we have two words"''. Your argument here (along with its tacit denial of hyponymy) is hilarious, and reveals beyond any doubt (if there ever was any) that you have never formally studied linguistics. ] (]) 08:45, 7 May 2008 (UTC)
::Since God is Spirit, does it mean that God created us with souls? The Bible doesn't clarify the point. However Jesus, the Son of God was certainly male in his physical body.<br />
::I don't think God is female; the Bible says "God '''created'''... male and female." (is this limited to material creation?)--] (]) 00:29, 7 August 2012 (UTC)
::God is male, because, in the bible, it states that he created man 'in his own image', and this man just happened to be Adam, a male. If he created a person in his own image, and made the person male, that means the God himself is male as well, no?
::Just to clear out any confusion, God created Eve because there was no suitable partner for Adam. In other words, Eve was NOT created in God's own image. ] (]) 15:48, 20 July 2024 (UTC)
:::The initial gender of Adam is debatable, in Juddaism, Adam was ], while others claim the woman that was created before Eve was ]. Because when God created Adam, he created a man-woman or a man and a woman, depending on the translation or wording. ] (]) 18:00, 20 July 2024 (UTC)
::::And the ] ] (]) 18:00, 20 July 2024 (UTC)


To give a more NPOV this is true only in monotheistic religions--and the article as it stands says this. I think what is frustrating for many women today is that men tend to assume that God is male like them, feel threatened by the idea that God is not male like a human male and shut out any spiritual insights women might have. Jesus listened to women and responded to them (See the Marriage at Cana, Mary and Martha, Mary Magdalene as the first witness to the Resurrection). It's something the early Christian church accepted at first, then soon began to abandon. Why can't men follow Jesus? (I wish I didn't have to express this POV, but men often express a purely masculine POV and eliminate any insights women can contribute.)--] (]) 01:01, 7 August 2012 (UTC)
::*"Hindu and Buddhist religions believe ..." — Manfredo and Dayer, 'Concepts for Exploring the Social Aspects of Human–Wildlife Conflict in a Global Context', ''Human Dimensions of Wildlife'', 2004.
: Not all your Bible's authors favored listening to and responding to women. Frex, 1 Corinthians 14:34-35: "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." Is it any wonder why so many Christian men are male chauvinists? ~ ] (]) 11:10, 27 August 2012 (UTC)
::*"Not all religions believe in gods." — Neitz and Spickard, 'Steps toward a sociology of religious experience', ''Sociological Analysis'', 1990.
::There are hundreds more citations available like this. Your quarrel is with academic literature, which is the standard expected of Wiki articles and editors. I can only point you there. I can't make you conform, nor do I wish to do so. As regards the article, however, it needs to conform, and that is within my capacity and hence my responsibility. ] (]) 07:39, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


::The idea is: Misplaced Pages does not decide if God has a gender. Misplaced Pages simply makes an inventory of the notable opinions thereupon, the most notable and widespread being that God is male (whatever male could mean for God/a spirit). We don't take sides in this matter, all such notable opinions are worthy of being mentioned. ] (]) 23:00, 10 September 2012 (UTC)
:::The only claim my previous comment made about 'religions believe' is that it is not an example of synecdoche. As for the stylistic value, finding two examples of its use does not dispel the claim that it is clumsy wording.
{{od|::}}
:::''"As regards the article, however, it needs to conform"''. What ridiculousness is this? The only way editors are obliged to conform to sources is in the informational content their contributions convey. There is a requirement to accurately represent the claims made in those sources, but there is no requirement to use the same wordings. Besides that, you've done nothing to show that your preferred wording is the dominant one. You're scraping the barrel a little here, old chap. ] (]) 08:45, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


:Again you're not reading ''all'' I write. I mentioned I found hundreds of examples of ''religions believe''. That was just in one location, and I'm not going to transcribe more. ''Political parties'' also believe in published English usage. " believe" is acceptable in formal written English, possibly even prefered. If I gave you a thousand examples you would not be satisfied, that's your problem not mine. I've recorded enough for other editors to see objective evidence to decide for themselves.
:Whatever term we use to describe this usage is ultimately interesting but irrelevant. You are wrong about ''religions believe'' not being metonymy, it is an example of This also makes it an example of synecdoche as it involves the whole-part relation. I admit I muddled the definitions in the last comment above.
:I am also happy to say that I have frequently seen the suggestion that synecdoche is a specific kind of metonymy in reliable sources. I happen to disagree with it. There are too many cases where part is substituted for whole or vice versa but do not constitute a conventional association. SIL admits such as metonymy, by dissociating conventional association from their definition of the device. I prefer to identify the device only when there is conventional association to support such a claim. I see conventional association as characteristic of metonymy, not one specific form it. I've not read anyone else that says this, but then I've also not read anyone actually calling an unconventional whole-part relation metonymy either, synecdoche is the natural term to use in that case. My preference in this is not something I could push in a Wiki article, since it's not backed by sources. It's not relevant to this article so that's where this ends.
:As for formal study, it's a wonderful thing, but study does not end when examinations do. Academic treatment of language has featured in all four formal qualifications I hold, and features very heavily indeed in the one I'm currently pursuing. But the qualifications of editors at Wiki are irrelevant, anyone can edit, even you and me. What matters are what sources say, and the usage that they exemplify. In future discussions you have at Wiki, I recommend you discuss the views and usage of sources, rather than express your own opinions of other editors.


== Comparative Religion - Role of language ==
::''"Again you're not reading ''all'' I write. I mentioned I found hundreds of examples of ''religions believe''"''. What you've read and what you've presented as evidence are two different things.
::''" believe" is acceptable in formal written English, possibly even prefered"''. That's not the pattern we're talking about. The name of a religion is not the name of a group of people. Do you agree that "Judaism doesn't eat pork" is a clumsy way of saying "Jews don't eat pork"? Do you agree that this is exactly the same kind of metonymy as in ''religions believe''?
::''"If I gave you a thousand examples you would not be satisfied, that's your problem not mine"''. If I gave you a thousand examples of people spelling ''ridiculous'' as <<rediculous>>, would you be satisfied that it is the proper spelling?
::''"You are wrong about ''religions believe'' not being metonymy, it is an example of "''. What... the hell... are you doing? I've been saying it was metonymy from the beginning! ''I'' was the one who introduced the term to the discussion by describing ''religions believe'' as such. ''You'' are the one who asserted it wasn't. You can't just swap our stances when you realise you were wrong, Alastair. It doesn't work that way.
::''"This also makes it an example of synecdoche as it involves the whole-part relation"''. A religion's adherents are not part of the religion any more than a book's readers are part of the book. But seriously, this doesn't matter. Why is it that most of what you write here is about matters that don't concern the article? ] (]) 14:28, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


I would like to see some examples and citations to flesh out this potentially interesting point. Sadly, I'm not the person to add this information, but as an interested reader, I'd say it lacks clarity and credibility in it's current state. <small><span class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 18:04, 23 April 2011 (UTC)</span></small><!-- Template:Unsigned --> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->
:::A question! Wow! A nice change.
:::The answer is simple, since you consistently work by addressing me rather than the issue, all I can do is parry personal attacks, or let you have the last word in a long tangent about Alastair and not about the issues.
:::Ilkali states opinion. Alastair quotes examples contrary to Ilkali's opinion. Ilaki questions Alastair's methodology or competance. Alastair cites evidence in support of his arguments. Ilkali again questions matters pertaining to Alastair or his methodology rather than the original issues.
:::It's an endless chain leading to solipsism. Ilkali says this doesn't seem right. Alastair says here's why it's OK. Ilkali raises the bar and questions those reasons. Alastair plays along and provides support at the next level. This goes on and on until we're discussing abstractions far removed from the original simple issues.
:::#Is ''religions believe'' acceptable formal English? Yes.
:::#Is ''God'' capitalised in the context of Judaism, Christianity, Islam and Sikhism? Yes.
:::#Is ''divine person'' attested theological usage? Yes.
:::Empirical answers are available to the questions here.
:::I happen to find empirical answers rather unsatisfying, especially if they go against my intuition. I presume that is true of Ilaki, so I offer the best explanations I know of in the literature to explain not only ''that'' the above are so, but also ''why'' they are so. More fool me, because answers to ''why'' questions can be strung out forever. Why do I have to go to bed now? So you can be alert tomorrow. Why do I have to be alert tomorrow? So you get the most out of school. Why do I have to get the most out of school? So you can get a good job. Why do I have to have a good job? ...
:::But I'm over this Ilkali. The books answer you. There are plenty of sources mentioned or alluded to above, and plenty of search terms as well. I'm not going to write an essay on usage conventions to footnote every choice in the text. There's a superabundance of that now in this discussion alone.
:::If you want to improve the article, the way forward is for you to propose a concrete alternative ... without ''it'' or ''entity'' (unless you can cite support for that usage) and inclusive of both the monotheistic "God" POV and the polytheistic "gods" POV. I wish you well, 'cause it's a jolly tricky thing to do without tripping over something. ] (]) 15:37, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


== carm.org ==
::::''"The answer is simple, since you consistently work by addressing me rather than the issue, all I can do is parry personal attacks"''. Do you consider "suchandsuch is not synecdoche" a personal attack? That's the issue you've been spending most of your effort on in the past few comments, and it's clearly not related to improving the article.
::::The chains of questions you complain about are my best efforts to anchor you to the topic at hand rather than letting you set up smokescreens and waltz away on tangents.
::::In one of the very first posts, I identified that ''religions believe'' is metonymy and pointed out that metonymic relations are subject to constraints. You immediately dropped the topic. We're now tens of thousands of characters later, and I've managed to get you to admit that I was right about the metonymy. How many years of my life would I have to dedicate to getting you to understand that the construction itself is clumsy and unsightly?
::::In one of the very first posts, I argued that the noun in ''a God'' is a common noun. At first you denied it, then you insisted that it ''is'' a common noun but that its capitalisation is a special case, then you changed your mind again and claimed that it is a special kind of proper noun. How long until you consider that maybe you're not qualified for this?
::::In one of the very first posts, I agreed that ''divine person'' is a meaningful and generally useful term, but argued against its inclusion on a number of grounds. Poof. Smokescreen. Waltzing away. I never got you to as much as acknowledge my arguments, let alone respond to them. Even now you're still attacking a position I don't hold.
::::You're not cut out for this. The best thing you can do for yourself is realise that. ] (]) 16:11, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


This website aims to show that the Catholic Church and the Islam are heresies. Therefore it is not a reliable source anyway one would look at it. It is a highly polemic source instead of being academically descriptive. I have reverted edits based upon carm.org propaganda. ] (]) 22:39, 10 July 2013 (UTC)
==Restoring vandalized text==
Interestingly, over the two years I've watched this article, it has been one of the most consistently vandalised articles on my watchlist. I've found this somewhat strange, since the article is quite short on reliable source coverage of any general material on the topic. There's barely enough content here for vandalism to be possible.


:In a historical, anthropological and sociological sense Christian are the persons/churches who define themselves as Christian. ] (]) 22:43, 10 July 2013 (UTC)
In due course (which may be a long time), I'll return the text that distinguished between monotheistic and polytheistic religions, which is clearly significant given the title, which appears to refer to only one God.


== Genesis 1:26-27: ==
The history of the article is that it was moved and disambiguated. Once there was only a single article ], which had attracted a lot of material on Bible translation. Now, I believe we have three articles: ], ] and ].


In the article, in the section, "In the Hebrew and Christian Bible" (http://en.wikipedia.org/Gender_of_God#In_the_Hebrew_and_Christian_Bible), the claim is made that Elohim was male and female, and they made man in their image.
The current title is not entirely satisfactory. Is it appropriate to lump monotheism and polytheism together? Is it appropriate to use a neuter pronoun for God, when ''none'' of the religions mentioned use such a pronoun?


On the contrary, nowhere in Genesis is a female identity assigned to YHWH the Father, or to Ha Mashiach the son. In addition, if there was any doubt about the gender of the son, (because we can easily confirm the gender of the Father), we can check John 1:1-4:
If the lead of the article refers to an IT, I'm happy to delete Hinduism (the only polytheistic religion mentioned) and change IT to HE, since ''he'' is the standard pronoun for reference to God in all the religions listed.


"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with YHWH, and the Word was Elohim. The same was in the beginning with YHWH."
Happy to hear other thoughts. ] (]) 08:57, 6 May 2008 (UTC)
This shows that this "Word" (the second entity in Elohim, also known as the Messiah) was the same individual who was conversing with the Father in Genesis 1:26-27, since it says clearly that "The same was in the beginning with YHWH".


And what gender was this "Word", that was with the Father during the creation? We can continue reading at John 1:3-4:
:What the hell are you talking about? Only about a quarter of this seems relevant to the intro text dispute. What vandalism? Who's talking about mono/polytheism? ] (]) 09:09, 6 May 2008 (UTC)
"All things were made by HIM, and without HIM was not anything made that was made. In HIM was life, and the life was the light of all men."


I have taken the liberty to remove the false statement that Genesis 1:26-27 speak of a female Messiah who was with the Father. <span style="font-size: smaller;" class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (]) 18:27, 1 September 2014 (UTC)</span><!-- Template:Unsigned IP --> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->
::I'm just about through with this discussion. Rudeness is not conducive to making a point ... if you have one!


:That is ] based upon ], does not beat ] from ]. ] (]) 18:41, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
::If you can't see the relevance try thinking a little more deeply, reading more of the article and those with which it is associated, explore the edit history and archives. When I challenge articles I research the background, and if I still don't understand. I work out what I don't understand, frame questions and ask them directly, politely and without criticism.


::It is not "original research". It is quoting directly from the Bible itself. All other research is "original research", based on the Bible. Quoting from the Scripture is not "research"; it is citation. Saying that citing the Bible is "original research" is the same as saying that citing the constitution is "original research". Calling a secondary article "verifiable information" that has more credibility than the Bible itself is the same as saying that a Law student's thesis is more "verifiable information" than the constitution itself. That is flawed logic. ] (]) 19:36, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
::My comments here are part of documenting the history of the article, they are not aimed at addressing any particular concerns you might have, since you'd typed nothing when they were written. ] (]) 16:28, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


:::What I just told you is well-established Misplaced Pages practice. We don't perform ] upon the Bible, Koran, Vedas, etc., but instead we trust scholars to perform this analysis for us. Coogan is a top of the food chain Bible scholar. See also ]. ] (]) 19:55, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
:::''"My comments here are part of documenting the history of the article, they are not aimed at addressing any particular concerns you might have"''. They appeared directly after you exhorted me to justify my edit on the talk page, and they make explicit reference to some of the things I changed. Is it unreasonable to think you might be aiming it at me? People don't often create new sections on talk pages just to document article histories - especially without explicitly stating that they're doing as much. ] (]) 16:51, 6 May 2008 (UTC)


:::Torah isn't a ]. ] (]) 20:00, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
::::You are correct. Your edit prompted the comments. And yes, alluding to it explains a small part of the post. In the big picture though, your edit is a small matter; 25% would be a generous porportion of text to address what is a tiny blip. It is somewhat self-absorbed to suggest a general comment about the article should be 100% concerned with one edit you made, don't you think? ] (]) 03:54, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


::::Re: Your second revert: I noticed that after I replied, you weaseled in another revert, even though there is a very pronounced time between my response and your revert; i.e, it looks as if you would have seen my response here on the talk page, and then chosen to sneakily revert anyway. I'd like to ask you to respect the discussion process, and the entire purpose of the "Talk page" dialogue system, and engage in due dialogue when disputing changes. I have a right to contribute to the body of knowledge, and to remove factual inaccuracies, as does every other editor of the Wiki.
:::::Read my above comment again. Read the words, one at a time, and think about what they mean. And if you can manage it (and recent experience suggests that you can't), try thinking about it from ''my'' perspective instead of yours. ] (]) 06:27, 7 May 2008 (UTC)


::::In addition, the name of the section is "In the Hebrew and Christian Bible", so the only logical and standing final authority on this particular section is the Hebrew and Christian bible. My citations are from this very text, the Hebrew and Christian Bible. I have done nothing but correct a factual misattribution which misquotes the Hebrew and Christian Bible.
== Neutrality of viewpoint ==


::::Please show where or how my edit is not consistent with the Hebrew and Christian Bible, or else please refrain from further vandalization and opinionated reverts. Torah is a reliable source when the very section being edited is specifically describing the contents of the Torah section of the Hebrew and Christian Bible. ] (]) 20:03, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Alastair, after some time gone, I look forward to continuing our discussion of this article. I think several changes need to be made the body of the article to bring it into compliance with a "neutral point of view."


:::::No, Torah isn't a reliable source for anything on Misplaced Pages. You may want to read ] and ]. Then read ]. ] (]) 20:05, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
1. I think as a background to this whole discussion, I would like to see whether we can agree that, prior to the last century, the issue of the gender of God (or the specific trinitarian persons) was largely moot among Christian theologians. Extant texts preserve only a handful of discussions, at most, by theologians that really examine these questions of divine gender. For the most part, where statements that are relevant to this discussion are found, can we agree that these particular issues of divine gender were not in focus, but merely peripheral? In other words, I am saying that I doubt any serious scholar disputes that throughout Christian history, the vast majority of theologians have considered the trinitarian persons to be neither male nor female, but have considered masculine language appropriate. At the same time, I am saying that it wasn't even an issue on which many reflected.


:::::See also ] which acknowledges this. ] (]) 20:09, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
2. "The names Father and Son clearly denote masculinity" is a biased statement in terms of what it omits. I agree that, obviously, these are masculine terms, but certainly these names are not the only ones used of the first and second persons of the Trinity. I agree that these names are masculine; feminist theologians (who while a minority, are certainly not fringe) would dispute that these names imply that these trinitarian persons are more masculine than feminine. Perhaps we can come up with a way to convey that the masculinity of the Father and Son is the historically dominant position in such a way that recognizes that the question of using feminine language wasn't really asked until modern times, and that since it has been asked, while the masculine language view is still the consensus, there are now many theologians who dissent.


:::::Translating the Bible is a highly contentious process. Interpreting the Bible is a highly contentious process. That's why Misplaced Pages only trusts scholars to render the viewpoints of the Bible, and does not allow for original research based upon the Bible. ] (]) 20:12, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
3. "Regarding the Spirit, the Gospel of John implies masculinity" is also biased. I am aware of the argument here, but the Gospel's thrust seems to be to argue for personhood, not make a statement regarding gender. Can you cite a few scholars (and works) where "ekeinos" in John is interpreted to have a bearing on the the discussion of the gender of the Holy Spirit? I am not aware of any that mention the use of the masculine except in the context of pointing to this as evidence of the Spirit's personhood. "Implies" just seems too strong for me, as though scholars who would say "no it doesn't" are irrational or are ignoring an obviously logical conclusion.


::::::The section in question is asking, "What does the Hebrew and Christian Bible have to say on the Gender of God". I have not interpreted anything. I ''cited'' the source. The view follows naturally. I did not need to interpret anything. It flowed naturally from the '''letter''' of the text.
4. "The New Testament also refers to the Holy Spirit as masculine" is problematic on two counts. First, it implies more than the truth of the matter. In fact, the New Testament uses grammatically masculine language only in a few passages in John. This sentence is too vague. Also, perhaps it could read something along the lines of refers to the HS using masculine language. The point here is neutrality in the article, not setting it up to appear that the use of the pronouns logically requires any particular opinion about the HS's gender, even though one can plausibly argue that they lend support to a particular position.


::::::Again, since the section being edited is a section on the view of "God" in the Hebrew and Christian Bible, and the originally disputed quotation is from Genesis 1:26-27, which is a Torah verse, the Torah is clearly the only final authority on anything written in this section. As a corollary of this, I ask you to prove that, from the Hebrew and Christian Bibles, the "Elohim" spoken of in Genesis 1:26-27 had a Female component.
5. "That male one" is a huge problem. I appreciate the source, but I can give you several that say "that one." Would you like them? In fact, Strong's indicates "that one." The key, as I see it even in Thayer, is "the one there" - the specificity. By the way, Thayer doesn't say "that male one" but "that man, woman, thing..." - certainly, it isn't logically necessary to read John as referring to the HS as a a man?!


::::::The burden of proof now lies with you. I have already proven, from the Hebrew and Christian Bible that it does not say this. In order for you to argue the opposite and perform any further reverts, it is left to '''you''' to prove, from the Hebrew and Christian Bible, that is does indeed say that there is a female component to Elohim the Creator, described in Genesis 1:26-27. I have again taken the liberty to revert your reversion.
6. "This breaking of the grammatical agreement, expected by native language readers, is a clear indication of the authorial intention to unambiguously convey the personhood of the Holy Spirit, and also the Spirit's masculinity." - The sentence would be okay if it indicated that this is an interpretation, even the historically majority one, but it is not neutral as it stands. I agree that we don't want to overstate how the statistical strength of minority viewpoints, but at the same time, we don't want to make historically majoritarian viewpoints seem like the only logical ones. If the indication were clear that the intention were unambiguous, no serious scholar would dispute the implications, but on the issue of the gender of the HS, there is dispute, etc.


::::::Please stop vandalizing the article, and respect the due process of burden of evidence. I have already, from the final authority on the section, given evidence.
7. "This makes it clear that God has masculine gender, rather than male sex; as indicated by the pronoun He in the official English translation of Ille in the Latin original." This is a misrepresentation of the Catholic Catechism and needs to be changed. It is absolutely not the official teaching of the Roman Catholic Church that the Holy Spirit (or God generally) has masculine gender. The Latin option was masculine or feminine; neuter has never been used for God in Catholic theology because it would deny God's personhood. But don't make more of this statement than it is.


::::::The only '''possible''' source of evidence for an analysis of the Hebrew and Christian Bible is the ''Hebrew and Christian Bible''. This is basic logic. The section is asking, "What does the Hebrew and Christian Bible say?". ] (]) 20:16, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Here's to a good discussion!] (]) 21:20, 9 May 2008 (UTC)


:::::::You either play by the Misplaced Pages rules or leave. The choice is yours. The burden of proof has been satisfied according to ] through citing a ]. The Torah isn't an authority upon the Torah. You are not a reliable source and neither is Torah. ] (]) 20:21, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
:I agree that there are issues regarding NPOV regarding the overall article, but since your points 1-7 are all related to the Christian section, I'll take it that this is what you have issue with. I think it is also worth noting that all your points are directly related to Christian views on the gender of the persons of the trinity. In other words, they are all directly relevant to the topic of the article and the topic of the Christian section within it. Finally, I'll note that nearly all the points have been previously addressed on the talk page associated with the current text. But here are some brief answers to your comments.
#"The vast majority of theologians have considered the trinitarian persons to be neither male nor female." I cannot agree with this, please cite even one historical theologian that says this, or even one current commentator that suggests it of those who have gone before.
#"The names Father and Son clearly denote masculinity." I stand by the ''clearly'' in this sentence. These names indicate ''role'' (ruler and heir, consider Hebrews 1-2), it is hard to imagine any more concise attribution of gender (irrespective of whatever they may be understood to intend regarding sex of the referents). Speculation regarding spiritual rather than biological sex does exist (and I am personally interested in it), but this is hardly representative of Christian views of the gender of God. ]
#"Regarding the Spirit, the Gospel of John implies masculinity." There already is one citation for this. Another is DB Knox, ''The Everlasting God'', where chapter 3 is supplemented by an extended appendix, which deals with gender among other things. Knox' college also produced a collection of essays on Personhood and Sexuality in which I seem to recollect discussion of gender and Spirit. There is also considerable treatment of the subject in discussions related to gender and Bible translation. The only alternative to the masculine reading of the Spirit is the non-impersonal reading (discussed hypothetically in the literature). Because there are so many ''other'' cues to establish non-impersonal in the text, I have read and heard the general point that the only reasons ''not'' to accept the natural masculine reading would lie either in prior commitment to a feminine or neuter Spirit, or to scepticism about anything not made redundantly explicit. But the decisive points are that John certainly precludes both a feminine Holy Spirit (because John could have made her personal by describing her as her but did not do so) and a neuter Holy Spirit (because he changed the natural neuter pronoun to masculine). John is biased, not his interpreters. But this is all ultimately beside the point. A reference from a very well known book and author have been provided and not even one reference has been provided for a contrary reading.
#"The New Testament also refers to the Holy Spirit as masculine." Four versions of the NT doing precisely this are provided, one of them a gender neutral translation.
#"That male one." Is precisely what ''ekeinos'' means, though it often means simply ''he'' (see John 1, and translations in the passages mentioned above). You are quite correct, however, as in English, ''he'' is often used generically. Both the demonstrative force and the significance of the gender marking depend on context. Bible translations are the obvious reliable sources to establish what ''ekeinos'' means in context.
#"This breaking of the grammatical agreement..." is not in any way biased, it is a simple statement of fact, backed by sources. Not only that, I'm not aware of ''any'' sources that argue to the contrary. OR would be suggesting this without the suggestion already existing in print. POV would be expressing preference for this over other views. Clearly neither applies. You keep on suggesting that there's some kind of historical dispute about this ... where? The same sources that note that the HS has always been considered male, based on John, are also the ones that offer the ''hypothetical'' alternatives, only to explain why these have never actually been presented. A masculine Holy Spirit ''is'' effectively the only reasonable alternative. Groups that have believed the Holy Spirit to be female have not argued this from John, nor have they defended against John, some didn't even have the Greek (the Syrians in all likelihood). A neuter Holy Spirit has not been put forward by ''anyone'' afaik. Feel free to ''add'' any major view that can be found in the literature. But it is no argument against unanimity that it fails to articulate other opinions. Is truth subordinate to diversity of opinion?
#"He in the official English translation of Ille in the Latin original." Historically, I had to correct a "quote" of this statement that tried to make it say more than it does. Quotation marks were used, yet when I checked, they did not reflect either the English or the Latin of the document. It is an interesting thesis that you propose, that the Catholic Church considers God to be without gender, using the pronoun ''he'' for him only in the sense of being personal, not in the sense of being masculine. A source that says this would be helpful, otherwise it strikes me as OR. Of course, many feminists would not agree with you, because all uses of ''he'' imply masculinity on their reading. We know they are wrong and self-defeating in this, but that's another story. ] (]) 03:36, 12 May 2008 (UTC)


::::::::I am now very confident that the next step you will take is to ban me from further edits, so before you do this, I will take the liberty to point out the insanity in the reasoning that you are using to justify your reverts:
:::Here are some responses.
:::1. This is key so let's begin with the Catechism of the Catholic Church (being the largest Christian denomination worldwide. Sec. 279, which is quoted in part here, reads "By calling God 'Father' the language of faith indicates two main things: that God is the first origin of everything and transcendent authority; and that he is at the same time goodness and loving care for all his children. God's parental tenderness can also be expressed by the image of motherhood, which emphasizes God's immanence, the intimacy between Creator and creature...human parents are fallible and can disfigure the face of fatherhood and motherhood. We ought therefore to recall that ''God transcends the human distinctions between the sexes.'' He is neither man nor woman: he is God. He also transcends human fatherhood ''and motherhood,'' although he is ''their'' origin and standard: no one is father as God is Father." Certainly, the Father imagery is predominant in the catechism, as it was used in the NT. God is never called "mother" in any canonical Christian text. But, according to the official teaching of the Catholic Church, God is neither male nor female (I am using biological categories here). Further, if we move beyond biological into the symbolic (and spiritual? an interesting thought, "spiritual sex"), God is origin and standard of both fatherhood and motherhood. Going on to section 370, we read "In no way is God in man's image. He is neither man nor woman. God is pure spirit ''in which there is no place for teh difference between the sexes.'' But the respective 'perfections' of man and woman reflect something of the infinite perfection of God..." Jerome, in his Commentary on Isaiah points precisely to the fact that ''ruah'' is feminine, ''pneuma'' is neuter, and ''spiritus'' is Latin as evidence that God transcends all categories of sexuality (for the Latin, refer to Migne, ''Patrologiae cursus completus. Series latina.'' 24.419b). Do I need to start referencing Athanasius, Basil, Gregory of Nyssa, Gregory of Nazianzus, Augustine and Aquinas about God's incomprehensiblity? Pope John Paul II, in ''On the Dignity and Vocation of Women,'' says "This characteristic of biblical language--its anthropomorphic way of speaking about God--points indirectly to the mystery of the eternal 'generating' which belongs to the inner life of God. Nevertheless, in itself this 'generating' has neither 'masculine' nor 'feminine' qualities. It is by nature totally divine. It is spiritual in the most perfect way..." My point is that no major theologians have urged that God is either male or female, questions of masculinity or femininity aside. Certainly we agree on that if God has no physical body. I am urging further that we can agree that the issue of God's symoblic/metaphorical/spiritual(?) gender is a relatively recent discussion. Masculinity was simply assumed in centuries past without any real conviction behind it.
::::::A quick point, then the main one. Either masculinity of the Father ''was'' assumed (your last assertion) or it ''was not'' assumed (your main case). I presume you mean sometimes it was and sometimes it wasn't. (That would be the only justification for a POV tag btw.)
I must have been unclear. It was assumed without necessarily being asserted. I am saying the worldview of the time made masculinity a natural interpretation, but it was not one that a critical (in an academic, not necessarily "criticism" sense) eye was never actually turned toward. It would be like those who are quick to dismiss the total truthfulness of the Christian Scriptures by pointing to texts implying a flat earth or a geocentric viewpoint. I'm not necessarily advocating a view of Scripture as inerrant, but the fact that several biblical authors wrote in a way which assumed scientifically inaccurate viewpoints does not logically, ''necessarily'' imply that they were making assertions that these assumed viewpoints were truthful. It simply wasn't even on the radar to think otherwise! Good analogy at least? ] (]) 02:23, 22 May 2008 (UTC)


::::::::You just said, in '''your own words''', and I quote: "'''The Torah isn't an authority upon the Torah.'''".
:Yes indeed! :) Let me say it back to you. It is hardly surprising that God has been considered to be masculine pretty much throughout history, since this has accorded with social contexts that have pretty much uncritically accepted androcentric worldviews. You are proposing the plausible thesis that God's masculinity has been presumed as uncritically as social androcentrism. With minor but significant exceptions I agree with you.
:Additionally however, I think the ] is also signficant, that when society is questioning androcentrism, it is unsurprising that it questions God's masculinity. There is an important sense in which doubt must be cast on recent considerations regarding God's gender, to precisely the same extent that such doubt is cast on past considerations -- current views tend to presume gender-neutrality in precisely the way previous views tended to presume androcentricity.
:So I agree with you, but can you see how it is a two-edged sword? ] (]) 03:43, 22 May 2008 (UTC)


::::::::Let the record bear that this person who is acting in the name and the authority of Misplaced Pages is being ''headstrong'', and denying the very basic logical premise that the contents of a book written as they appear, are the '''final authority''' on the content of that book. It follows naturally that a copy of Macbeth is the ''final authority'' on what is written in the book, Macbeth.
::::::The CCC is very clear about presenting both fatherhood and motherhood as ''roles'' implying nothing about ''sex'' (as indeed you note yourself). I find it hard to imagine how text could be clearer about making a distinction between ''gender role'' and ''biological sex'' without actually using those words. I'd be perfectly happy to ammend the existing text to include the additional modifiers ''role'' and ''biological'' rather than having just ''gender'' and ''sex'' as it stands (which are just standard non-technical terms). I can't see any difference between your view, the CCC and what stands in the text. To say that God is Father in no way implies he has biological sex. Rather, he is "pure spirit", the "origin" and "standard" "generating" both fatherhood and motherhood, and distinctively Father in a way no human father can be. The word ''Father'' conveys the generating, providing and authority ideals of fatherhood in the context of societies contemporary with the Bible, which no father has ever perfectly met but the heavenly Father himself. This is standard stuff in commentaries and theologies throughout history. I'm happy to provide some more sources. If you can provide a reliable and notable source that thinks differently, let's add it. If you can't supply one, I'll eventually remove the POV tag. If no evidence of any other view has been provided, there's no POV issue. ] (]) 10:24, 17 May 2008 (UTC)
You are still taking an ''extremely'' modernist view about human language as it applies to God. From the perspective of the Christian theological history, the analogical tradition asserts a very real disjunction, as well as the faint similitude, between what we assert and what is true of God. Woman is just as much in the image of God as man. And yes, God is the standard by which both human fathers and mothers are judged. So God is not male (male being a person or being with a given biological sex). I think the modifiers might make a difference. ] (]) 02:23, 22 May 2008 (UTC)
:I don't think we're in disagreement here either. I put the distinction between biological and social into the text to reinforce precisely the CCC's point that you are noting. I'm quite aware this is consistent with a long history of theologoical discussion. I can't understand why you think I assert some kind of biological male sexuality to the Father. I've never said any such thing on the talk page, in fact I've denied it several times. I can't think of anyone who ''does'' assert such a thing actually. But no such suggestion is made in the text of the article. Theologians were way ahead of modern discussion of gender. In theological thinking, masculine gender role is seen to be modelled on the Father, not ''vice versa'', this is quite explicit in many writers. Modern writers sometimes tar the biblical writers with the same brush as the writers of scriptures other than the Bible. If you don't believe in God, it's ''obvious'' where his masculinity comes from in the Bible. To an atheist the CCC is crazy wishful thinking — "God not in man's image? Get real!" they have to say.
:Jesus is another matter altogether, though. He ''is'' of biologically male sex, as well as providing a model of masculine gender role (Ephesians 5). In the article, Jesus is deliberately described in this fashion (but, you will note, the Father is not, nor should he be). ] (]) 04:05, 22 May 2008 (UTC)
:::2. If they names so "clearly" denote masculinity, why use the phrase "clearly"? It would be redundant. That alone makes it unnecessary and poor grammar and urges removal from the sentence. It would be inappropriate to state "The earth is clearly round" as a statement of fact--the correct phraseology for an encyclopedia would be "the earth is round." If we are dealing with facts, they speak for themselves. I would partially challenge your point nonetheless. If the language was viewed as analogical--and questions of gender weren't really raised--they are really not "clearly" making any claims regarding gender, at least not in the sense they were traditionally used.
::::::Good, we agree Father and Son are clearly masculine. You are so sure they are masculine you suggest it is redundant to say it. (Mind you, in point one you go to great length to suggest theologians might ''not'' think so.) How many fathers are feminine or neuter? None. How many sons are feminine or neuter? None. How many bachelors are feminine or neuter? Well, very occasionally women are described this way because ''spinster'' sounds so awful. Are eunuchs masculine? Well, yes and no. Is 7 clearly prime? Yes. Is 13 clearly prime? Well, it is to me. Is 41 clearly prime? Hmmm. Is the pronoun ''he'' clearly masculine? Ha, ha! Now there's a dispute. Is ''ekeinos'' clearly masculine? Ah! Another dispute. Are father and son clearly masculine? Yes! Is the distinction meaningful? Yes!
I agree as a matter of interpretation, not as a matter of logical necessity. You didn't really address why the word "clearly" is not redundant if the matter is clear. And, yes, we agree that the pronoun he is masculine. I guess, to use my phraseology from above, I am saying usage does not necessarily mean assertion.
:It's nice to hear you say this. Almost everything you say sounds close to what my own understanding of things is. We have a lot of sources in common. I think there's an element of talking at cross purposes. Perhaps we assume disagreements that are not actually there. More likely we disagree about more fundamental issues. Hence I'm easily satisfied with a masculine HS, but you are more sceptical on that point. For you, I think, the jury is still out, it's just a matter of time before someone works out the HS is transcendent in a way that cannot responsibly be considered masculine in any meaningful sense. For me, I accept the received verdict, I'm not calling for an appeal. I think there's no new evidence to support an appeal, and no evidence of an improper trial.


::::::::It also follows then, that the contents of the book, the Bible, are the '''final authority''' on the contents of the Bible. I am again, about to take the liberty to revert your revert, if you have done it again, since again, the burden of proof '''remains with you''', as I have already provided, from the ''final authority'', evidence to support my original change.
There is so much I want to respond to here but this will be a hectic weekend for me. I did want to clarify, however that I agree we seem to have many areas of agreement. But I wouldn't characterize my own position as "the jury is still out" any more so than your own. I think there is ''indirect'' scriptural support (and more support than opposition) and plenty of support from sacred tradition for the Holy Spirit as primarily imaged as feminine and maternal. What does distinguish me from many who argue from a feminist theological perspective is that I have humility before the received tradition. I think my case is better, but I recognize that the majority probably will not, and certainly, I recognize that I am arguing uphill and going against the grain to some degree. Having said that, I think many theologians from ages past, if they gave the issue consideration, would probably agree with the position I advance; but I do not think all, or even most, would (I tend to think many more of the Greek fathers would be supportive than the Latin and many of the Reformation thinkers as opposed to the scholastics - interesting that I am Catholic...). Still, though I have a view on the issue, it is at best an assertion about what is seen through glass darkly. ] (]) 01:02, 23 May 2008 (UTC)


::::::::I will also again, for the record, ask that you ''respect and follow'' the due process of burden of proof and provide proof for a female component of "Elohim", as described in Genesis 1:26-27, which is the very text that is disputed by this entire discussion. ] (]) 20:31, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
:With regard to the appropriateness of ''clear'': if it was ''not'' clear, could we use the word ''clear''? No. We can never use the word clear when things are unclear. The word clear would be redundant if there were something else in the text that made the same assertion—''Father and Son are unquestionably clear references to masculine conceptions''. Technically, redundancy is rare as true synonyms are rare, but ''unquestionably clear'' is just over the top or addressing the wrong issue. Clarity is not the point in question, masculinity is. So, ''F and S are unquestionably references to masculine ideas'' is OK. ''F and S are clear refs to masc ideas'' is OK. Putting both words or other words or multiplying modifiers to convey the point more forcefully would be redundant and POV (but probably accurate, lol).
:In context, the reason I put ''clear'' into the text was more by way of contrast with HS. The "authorial intention", if you like, was something like: "It's hard to avoid masculine associations with F and S, so let's skip forward to the interesting issue, that needs a bit of patience to unpack." I think it's a more balanced way of communicating the relative weight of evidence than say, "F and S are masc., but the HS is less clearly so". Relatively speaking that'd be true, but it suggests more doubt than sources demonstrate. "F and S are clear masc., and the HS is apparantly so also" seems more fair.
:''Clear'' is also a one word excuse for presenting no involved argument that Father and Son are conceived of as masculine. It means "we state without proof that F and S are masc, because the reader is presumed to find no difficulty with this idea, and because there are no reliable, substantial or significant alternative view." ] (]) 04:46, 22 May 2008 (UTC)
:::3. This is still biased; please try to suggest some alternate phrasing. "...a clear indication of the authorial intention to unambiguously convey..." is way too strong and presumptuous. Are you aware of any World Book article concerning sacred religious texts where the author authoritatively tells his/her readers what an author intended to convey? I know we can find some sort of middle ground here to get us to a more NPOV while not minimizing the weight of the grammatical argument. Also, "the Gospel of John implies masculinity" needs to be changed. Let's try to find some middle ground on that one too. Suggestions?
::::::Sorry, it appears to me that it is biased not to appreciate the words are quite specific and accurate descriptions, unless you have a source to suggest otherwise. Are you seriously suggesting authors don't have intentions? Are you seriously suggesting that published literary analysis does not consider such things? Are you seriously suggesting that authors select pronouns at random? Are you seriously suggesting that attributing authorial intention in pronoun selection is equally uncertain as attributing authorial intention regarding say Jew-Gentile relations or raising money for a mission to Spain (proposed by several commentators as Paul's intention in writing Romans)? Likewise, lexis and syntax that reduce or promote ambiguity are standard basic tools of interpretation. This falls at the lowest level of exegesis -- use of tenses, inflection and word order. They are almost mechanical (or instinctive) for translators. It would be presumptuous to suggest that authorial intention were opaque in such cases. Any attempt (say a tag) to say otherwise would need to be reverted as hopelessly OR and POV. You appear to be stuck on this point. John is not the only Koine text that does this. A text about Philip of Macedon's horse reveals it to be a mare, by using a feminine pronoun, breaking grammatical agreement with masculine ''hippos'' (horse). Other languages exist that do similar things. It's not my job to explain why you can't find reliable sources that argue contrary to the representative source quoted in the text. It's your job to find a source for another opinion. If you find one, add it, and remove ''clear''. Scholars know too much about language and about Greek to be confused about this point, however. The very fact that you question its clarity shows it needs to be asserted. You can rest assured, Grudem knows Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic and English (and, I think, Latin and German as well).
I believe I asked you some time ago whether we might add "it is traditionally asserted" preceding "a clear intention" and you indicated that such language would be unnecessary because the position was so obviously the traditional one. So why "clear" and "unambiguously." My biggest problem here is that you are making a step from the author's usage to the author making a theological claim relevant to a very modern/postmodern discussion of gender. Here's how you might look at what where I see the step: Let's say the gospel's author wants to make clear that the Holy Spirit is personal rather than impersonal. Well, if the neuter is inadequate to the task you have either masculine or feminine. So the author goes with the masculine, given that in surrounding passages the HS is being identified with the Paraclete (which is grammatically masculine). You can see from here how the author may have very well have made a choice to use the grammatically masculine so as to simply assert personality, etc. with no regard whatsoever to the Spirit's gender.
By the way, can we remove clear and unambiguously please? Here is what you requested as the prerequisite; though we are of quite different theological persuasions, I know that Dan Wallace (Dallas Seminary) is one of the most highly regarded of evangelical NT scholars in the US. Here is his take: http://www.ibr-bbr.org/IBRBulletin/BBR_2003/BBR_2003a_05_Wallace_HolySpirit.htm - and he doesn't even think that the use of the masculine should be used to argue for the personality of the Spirit, let alone the issue of the Spirit's gender! Hopefully, we have reached some consensus on this at last. ] (]) 02:23, 22 May 2008 (UTC)
:I've already removed ''clearly'', I only added it by accident because I thought it may have been removed according to your last point, but had the locations mixed up. (See my comments above for why I had ''clear'' for F and S but ''not'' for HS in my edition of this article.) ''Unambiguously'' I need to think about, Wallace certainly puts a case for an alternative reading, but in that case he notes dozens of scholars who claim the masculine pronoun for the HS. He cites none in support of his own position.
:I'm glad you found the Wallace article, because I ''profoundly agree with him''. Both the personality of the Spirit (which Wallace discusses) and his gender (which Wallace only notes he believes to be masculine in passing) are established by more lengthy and substantial considerations of all canonical books. I said as much in earlier responses (found because of the layout of this talk page in the text below).
:I'm thrilled to learn about Wallace's article, because now I know yet another writer who believes in a masculine HS for the right reasons, but this presents problems. Wallace is a writer who believes in a masculine HS (though he doesn't give an argument for this and he's a linguist more than exegete or theologian), he just points out that everyone argues from John and other passages and he's not satisfied with those on linguistic grounds. Interestingly, I deliberately chose the passage from John that I did, because ''my own personal'' assessment was that this was the strongest of the cases, which is also how Wallace describes it. Interestingly, I also made a point of noting the relevance of trinitarian theology to full treatment of this topic.
:But what do we do? Now, strictly speaking, if a large part of Syrian Orthodoxy believing a feminine HS is not sufficiently notable to have at the top of the Christian section (and it's not), it'd be pretty unfair to place Wallace' lone view there, despite the fact that I agree with him. It'd also be strange to single him out since he does accept classic Christian trinitarianism and masculinity of the three persons of the Godhead.
:I'm willing, however, to take a risk and you, me and Wallace can change this article without other support. We can add that the Holy Spirit impregnating Mary is a teaching of scripture attributing masculine gender role to him, noted in the Apostle's creed (which is accepted by Christians to this day). Additionally, nearly all theologians, exegetes and linguists, who address the question, argue from the Greek of the New Testament that the Holy Spirit's masculine gender role is marked grammatically. A conservative Christian Greek scholar has argued the grammatical argument is not as strong as the broader conceptual arguments.
:I think we need to discuss before acting, because Wallace is only one source, and he intends neither to overturn doctrines of personhood or masculinity of the HS, just to redirect focus to the best arguments for them. Wallace actually confirms everything in the article down to the end of the Bible quotes, except for his own opinion. His exhaustive literature review is like reading what we have, only for 20 pages! If we are to include him, it can't be in order to overturn the summary review we already have, which is precisely what he gives himself!
:::4. I think you misunderstood. My emphasis here was on the phrase ''the New Testament...refers'' but the addition of in the Gospel of John clears this up.
::::::Actually, sorry to spoil aparant agreement, I think the NT implies a masculine HS in other passages also. It is merely less direct to interpretation in those passages. It would be open to dispute so I don't quote the relevant passages. John is so clear it easily suffices to make the point. Once this is observed, the other passages follow naturally. "Conceived of the Holy Ghost" is an expression of masculine gender role for the HS articulated in creeds weekly around the world in Orthodox, Catholic and Protestant churches every week. To limit masculine gender role implication to John alone is therefore Weasling, as testified by maybe millions weekly. So NT ''simpliciter'' is what I will defend as appropriately encyclopedic for the text.
Wrong on this one! Conceived of the Holy Ghost can only be masculine if one is interpreting this in anything other than an analogical fashion. I know Catholics and the Orthodox do not, I'm familiar enough with their theological scholarship and official teachings. Maybe some Protestant churches have this conception, but I'm not sure which ones. In fact, the creed actually says literally "being made flesh out of the Holy Spirit," without any statement regarding "conception." (And just for fun, I note that the Creed applies the gender-inclusive anthropos, rather than masculine aner, to Jesus immediately following this...) ] (]) 02:23, 22 May 2008 (UTC)
:Actually ''anthropos'' is only relatively more gender-inclusive than ''adelphoi'' (see ). I'll check the Greek of Matthew, Luke and the creeds. I've checked the originals and they are all clear that the HS is the active divine agent in Mary's pregnancy. Matthew doesn't even use a verb, just a preposition, ''ek''. Are you seriously suggesting impregnating women is not a masculine role? Please provide a source for this.
:By the way, I've just discovered something you probably know well already, , which is very clear about the damage gender-neutral language prescription can do to authentic meaning. It has a specific statement regarding the ''truth'' of received gender marking regarding language for God and for each person of the trinity in paragraph 30. Yet again I find myself agreeing with the Roman Catholic authorities, and applaud them for being way ahead of protestants in addressing an issue.
:::5. Are you saying the Holy Spirit is male?
::::::Yes, without doubt. The Bible says much that bears on the issue. The full argument would take a journal article to outline. Perhaps I should write one, however, John on its own is clear enough and Grudem presents the case clearly enough for the context of this article. I particularly appreciate attempts to push the boundaries though, because discovering the weaknesses in such arguments ''is'' helpful to reinforcing the history of interpretation -- a male HS. This is one reason most treatments consider hypothetical alternatives. As I noted above, imagine John knew the Spirit to be feminine, he would not choose a grammatically and factually incorrect ''masculine'' pronoun. Imagine John knew the Spirit to be neither m or f, ditto. Imagine John didn't know anything about the gender of the Spirit, ditto. After eliminating the impossible, whatever remains, however unlikely is the truth (]). But a masculine HS is not even unlikely. He brings Mary to conception and has authority (with respect to the church) equal to two masculine co-partners in the trinity. The only argument I can see for a feminine HS, in biblical theological terms, would be her submission to the masculine Father and Son. But submission alone does not imply feminine, rather feminine implies submission.
:::6. I addressed this above but I hasten to add that I am not aware of any mainstream Christian who believe the Holy Spirit to be either male or female, which are biological terms. Let's make sure we are distinguishing sex and gender. Gregory of Nazianzus in the the Third Theological Oration argues that Father indicates nothing of marriage, or pregnancy, etc., which we associate with sex; rather it is metaphorical, parental, indicating a relation of origin. Still, let's try to work on re-phrasing.
::::::Excellent, we agree. Is that what this is all about? I completely agree with the CCC (I disagree with JPII, but that's another matter). Neither God, who is trinity, nor the Father nor the Spirit can have male biological sex predicated to them. This is precluded by many scriptures refering to spirituality and physicality. However, Jesus is both man and God and has both biological male sex as well as masculine gender roles. Likewise, his God and Father has masculine roles and so too the Spirit. I can imagine things being different. I'd kind of like a feminine person in the trinity for various philosophical reasons, however I personally try to grasp and follow the intention of the original texts. (They are more reliable than my poor brain regarding God and his nature.)
::::::In discussion of such things, I find no difficulty in conversation with people who accept only parts of the Bible or none of it. I only ever find difficulty with people who are personally committed to the whole of the Bible as being true, yet disagree with the idea of masculine gender role for God. Mostly I find these people think submission is for lesser beings, and so the clear biblical picture of woman in submission to man is abhorant to them. Quite right too, if submission is inferiority. (I am glad none of these people have ever been my boss, because I would find their presumption of superiority exceedingly offensive.) Of course, nobody thinks the President of the US is ever the best person for the job, nor superior to any other citizen in any way whatsoever. Rather, it is an office of public service, i.e. servanthood. So too with the Lord of the Gospel who both serves and leads with his redemptive death. Interestingly, even Jesus is eternally in submission to his Father (1 Cor 11 and 15 and Philippians 2), with no subordination of essence, only of role -- the ].
:::7. He has to be used in Latin because Deus is masculine and the Catholic Church, of course, goes with tradition. But I have above quoted John Paul II referencing the issue and I can get you a quote from our current pope which draws parallels between Mary and the Spirit, the latter as the primordial feminine in the Godhead.] (]) 02:20, 17 May 2008 (UTC)
::::::If Popes in the future are clear on this, or if they already have become clear on this, by virtue of being Pope their opinions are notable at Wiki. Of course I will disagree with them, I follow no denomination, only the Bible. But that's just me. This is a Wiki article, so I will actually fight to have their position retained on the page. I expect the same courtesy of others though, the position currently standing in the article falls well short of the Alastair Haines version of the issues, it is merely the currently unanimous consensus of all notable mainstream theologians, with the possible exception of JPII and maybe the current pope.
::::::Were I a Catholic, I would be particularly interested in pursuing the implications of doctrines regarding Mary for gender issues. However, it was the Gnostics who said, "Surely Mary did not conceive of the HS -- woman does not conceive of woman."
::::::Despite not being a Catholic, I have cited Catholicism as representative of Christianity's high view of women in various articles at Wiki. If people are to accuse Christians of misogyny, which is ridiculous, they can jolly well leave out the Catholic church from such slander. If there is misogyny in Catholicism, there is in any large organization, but it is a consequence of universal sin, not of Catholic doctrines ''per se''. I do think historical Christianity in general, not Catholicism alone, shows a tendency towards fear of sexuality. Again, this is human failing within institutions, imo, not due to the Bible's teaching which seems positive, considerate, compassionate but, most importantly, clear. I'll never forget a sermon where the preacher asked, "can you imagine God looking down with surprise thinking, 'I never thought they'd do ''that'''"? ] (]) 11:53, 17 May 2008 (UTC)


:::::::::Torah isn't an academic treatise about the Torah. In respect to analyzing the Torah, Misplaced Pages only trusts scholars, who publish peer-reviewed research and books edited by academic publishing houses (scientific/scholarly publishers). ] (]) 20:40, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Since a few days have passed with no further comment, I've removed the POV tag. I'm not presuming the dispute is settled, I simply discovered, while checking policy for dispute resolution procedures that, "Simply being of the opinion that a page is not neutral is not sufficient to justify the addition of the tag. Tags should be added as a last resort." My own personal protocol is to 1. attempt to remedy POV articles by adding reliable sources, or 2. note my concern on a talk page, if it goes unanswered, only then do I add a tag. No sources, no tag. Any discussion, no tag until last resort. But that's just me.


::::::::::That is flawed logic, irrational and insanity.
At this stage, no sources have been offered for any alternative opinions, other than what is already in the article. So I don't think we're at a "last resort" stage. Perhaps, if a source is found, and then added in a manner that I consider gives it undue weight, it'll be me that might finally opt for the "last resort". I can't see that happening because Andowney seems to be a reasonable person, and also, I simply don't expect any source is going to be found in the near future, 'cause I don't think they exist. Mind you, lots and lots of things exist that I wouldn't have expected. I love surprises. ;) ] (]) 13:33, 20 May 2008 (UTC)


::::::::::The situation is this: the original content of the article before I came here were ''inconsistent'' with the text of the Bible. I corrected this, and gave relevant citations. At this point, regardless of how you look at it, you have no right to intervene as a moderating influence. Your closest right to intervene is in the capacity of an independent editor, because I have not broken protocol or caused discord. I have disputed the content of the article, and provided relevant citations, as any editor should.
==Is this Judaism?==
I'm adding a citation request to the following.
*"The majority of objects related to worship in Judaism such as the Torah are grammatically feminine."
I think the issue here is that English is not Hebrew. In English, ''worship'' can mean something like, "people, things, roles or ideas involved in meetings of religious communities." However, in the Tanakh, ''worship'' is a central concept and where it has "objects" this is an explicit matter of concern. I can hardly think of anything more objectionable to the Tanakh or those who provide midrash than the suggestion that Judaism has "objects" associated with its "worship".


::::::::::Your intervention in the capacity of a Moderator is an abuse of privileges. At most you should be presenting proof of a Female component in the Genesis account, as any other editor is obliged to do. I reject your current actions in the capacity of a moderator in this matter, on the basis of your flawed logic, your '''inability to prove that the Hebrew and Christian Bible describes a female component to Elohim''', and your '''disrespect''', and high-handed abuse of the due process of dispute.
Anticipating another issue related to the sentence above, I can't say (but would like to know) how modern Hebrew handles personal/impersonal categories. In biblical Hebrew, scholastic consensus is that grammatical feminine inflection is sometimes used to resolve any ambiguity towards the impersonal, where masculine grammatical inflection resolves towards the personal. In other words, as with English and most languages that mark gender, the feminine grammatical gender is the more significant marker, it adds information, since masculine grammatical gender is merely the default. Feminine grammatical genders are more properly non-masculine or non-personal, when not simply expressing syntactic agreement. Masculine genders, on the other hand, are non-impersonal, but ''not'' non-feminine. Discrimination against the masculine in this way is almost universal in languages with three or fewer noun-classes (impers / pers systems like Sumerian are the main exception).


::::::::::Additionally, calling your logic "insanity" is not calling you "insane", and there is a difference between the two. The former is an attack on your epistemology. The latter is an attack on your person. You seem to be very intent on building a case to use to '''silence''' and '''censor''' me on this matter, by finding an excuse to ban me. I will again revert any revert you have made, '''pending proof''' from you, or '''anyone else''' that there is a Female component to Elohim, as described in the Hebrew and Christian Bible. ] (]) 20:56, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Anyway, this article is about the ''natural'' gender of God (semantics), not about grammatical gender (syntax), except in the contexts where syntax actually helps us resolve semantic intention regarding natural gender. So, on two counts, the above sentence is rather infelicitous -- it draws in things that cannot be substituted for God in Judaism, and invokes an invalid argument from syntax.


{{od}}{{quote|Your words, images and ideas are not suppressed, simply not being promulgated on the website of a private charity. You are free to post your words, images and ideas on your own website, blog, newspaper, podcast, tshirt, bumper sticker or other form of free speech. There is a handy essay here, ]. Perhaps your website will be of such quality that millions will turn to it for information. There are quite a few places to start a blog free of charge....|] (]) 01:59, 31 August 2014 (UTC)}}
PS On second thoughts, I'm simply removing this sentence, since no reliable source will be found to support it. ] (]) 02:42, 12 May 2008 (UTC)

Quoted by ] (]) 21:32, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

:I have listed this discussion on the Active Disagreements, awaiting a 3rd opinion. Let the record show that two moderators, Jim1138 and C.Fred have reverted changes without even appearing once on the talk page, and have therefore violated due process of discussion. ] (]) 21:34, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::Don't push your luck. By Misplaced Pages rules, this isn't a disagreement, it is reverting ]. You are not entitled to remove sourced text just because you do not like it and prefer to think that the Torah would support you. ] (]) 21:40, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::And you did not provide any evidence, as you have falsely claimed there, you are just pontificating about what the Bible is supposed to mean. ] (]) 21:47, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

:::My revert was strictly procedural: I felt the better option, as an administrator, was to revert ]' violation of ] rather than block him for the violation. —''']''' (]) 21:51, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::::I am directly quoting you now; you just said, "'''Don't push your luck'''". Are you saying that it is "luck", or a privilege that you have granted me, to edit the public domain Encyclopedia, known as Misplaced Pages? How am I "''lucky''" to be engaging in this dispute? And how is it "''pushing my luck''" to list my disagreement on the Disagreement page? Is it that you see me as a '''lesser contributor''' because I have a view that seems to be opposed to yours?

::::In that case, where view clashes with view, we must let the authoritative source be the final arbiter. Which is precisely what I have done. I am not acting on '''luck'''; I have respected the rules of scholarly debate, and provided citations from the final source.

::::There is no luck involved here. If you ban me without due discussion and without carrying your '''burden of proof''' which you still have not done, it is not that I have been vanquished by a "higher being" who has poured out retribution upon me for daring to oppose its '''illogic'''. It is that a Misplaced Pages Moderator has disrespected protocol and the due process of dispute, and denigrated the dignity of Misplaced Pages's open platform for credible contribution to the body of knowledge through examination of '''authoritative souces'''.

::::Your condescension and feelings of entitlement and high-handedness are showing. ] (]) 21:54, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::<span class="template-ping">@]:</span> Part of "protocol and the due process of dispute" is the three revert rule, which you have broken. If we were to enforce that strictly, you would already be temporarily blocked. That aside, I suggest you focus here on discussion of ] surrounding your desired edit, paying particular not of Misplaced Pages guidelines' preference for secondary sources over primary. —''']''' (]) 21:57, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::::::For the record, I am new to contributing to Misplaced Pages, which is why you can clearly see at the very beginning of this dispute (and in the History Log for the article) that my contribution was done without a registered account. That is not an ''excuse'' or ''justification'' for me having broken the "3 Revert Rule", but it does help to remove the indirect accusation leveled at me, that I have not respected protocol. I was not aware that there was a "3 Revert Rule". In every other respect in as much as there exist basic rules for scholarly debate, I have been respectful of those common-knowledge rules. ] (]) 22:07, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
:::::::{{ping|Nomnompuffs}} The first edit on the top of your ] is a warning about your edit warring. ] (]) 22:10, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::::::::Nomnompuffs, if you are a newbie, you can be excused for not knowing the rules. But not acknowledging the rules after you have been repeatedly warned of breaking them is not wisdom. As I told you, your choice is to abide by the rules and become a productive editor or break them and be blocked. If we compare a reference based upon Coogan's work with your pontification about the Bible, it is comparing evidence with a mere whim. All editors have opinions and philosophers think that opinion is the lowest form of knowledge; that's why Misplaced Pages only renders reliable sources. ] (]) 22:17, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::::::As I have already said: I was not attempting to excuse or justify the infraction. I was simply unaware. It is a statement not for vindication, but for disambiguation of motive. Your statement above here doesn't conflict with that. But I am sure that any reader who examines the statement will be rational enough to realize the redundancy of your statement and draw the same conclusion. ] (]) 22:24, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

::::::::::It remains a mystery to me how could you have remained unaware of the rules while the warning messages were delivered in real time. ] (]) 22:30, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

===3O===
Hi, I hope to be of some assistance in resolving the issue flagged on the 3O page. I have very limited familiarity with biblical scholarship, so I hope I can bring a relatively unbiased voice to the discussion. As I understand it, the question is whether there is a female component implied/embedded in the word "Elohim". Is that correct? If so, are there any WP:RS's which indicate this to be the case? Cheers, ] (]) 05:10, 2 September 2014 (UTC)

:Well, there is a book by Michael Coogan, which is properly cited in the footnotes. Besides, if ] (see above), it intuitively makes sense: the image of God is male and female, the likeness of God is male and female, therefore God (or Elohim) is/are male and female (Elohim is a plural). ] (]) 15:40, 2 September 2014 (UTC)

:In order to repeat myself, this wasn't a conflict between two scholarly views, presented by different reliable sources. It simply was removal of sourced information because the editor has ] and therefore does not like what the cited reliable source said (source written by a world-class authority on the Hebrew Bible). So it is basically a conflict between verifiable information and original research, and the user got blocked for not ceasing reverting. No editor is allowed to delete sourced information simply because he/she does not like it. Chaos would ensue if we would allow that to happen. So, it was a conflict between vandalism and reverting vandalism, regardless of how noble the reasons for vandalism were. ] (]) 15:59, 2 September 2014 (UTC)

:So, the editor has abused the third opinion process. This was a conflict between something (verifiable information) and nothing (original research). A third opinion could only exist between something and something, not between something and nothing. ] (]) 16:14, 2 September 2014 (UTC)
::Thanks for that Tgeorgescu, I guess you answered my question ;-) So there are WP:RS's which the article cited. Is that your understanding Nomnompuffs? Do you also have WP:RS's for the edit/s you wished to make? Cheers, ] (]) 01:01, 3 September 2014 (UTC)

:::I cannot answer instead him/her, but ] states that the same theological opinion as Coogan's is part of the Judeo-Christian tradition (to put it bluntly, Gnostics were Christians). ] (]) 20:47, 3 September 2014 (UTC)

::::So I presume that if there are sources stating that Elohim is both male & female - it is likely they are responding to other sources which say this is not the case? Do any WP:RS's along those lines exist? Cheers, ] (]) 23:46, 3 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::Pagels clearly states that God is mostly seen as male in the Judeo-Christian tradition (and that is what our Misplaced Pages article states, as abiding by ]), she also states that there are exceptions from this rule, one being an interpretation of Gen. 1:26-27. She is non-judgmental about this interpretation, she reports it as a fact about a notable theological opinion. Considering her whole article, she agrees with the idea that God was sometimes seen as female. ] (]) 06:52, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::If there are sources which state that the image and likeness of God is male but not female, I frankly don't know, but interpreting the Bible literally this would be a bizarre position (even more bizarre that God is both male and female, since the later does not contradict the letter of the Bible). ] (]) 07:05, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::So I understand that God being male and female is offending some religious sensibilities, but ]. The really offensive stance would be that the image and likeness of God is male but not female, since it would offend both religious sensibilities and human reason in general (which can examine what is written in the Bible regardless of the religious persuasion of the reader). ] (]) 07:20, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

::::::Thanks again Tgeorgescu. I guess I was just sounding out whether Nomnompuff's edit was indicative of a broader ''dispute'' which might warrant inclusion or explanation - as opposed to what happened (i.e. an unsourced WP:OR edit). Anyway, Nomnompuff doesn't seem particularly active on this talk page at the moment, so I'm happy to wait a bit longer to see if they want to chat/clarify things further, otherwise it looks reasonably straight forward from my perspective. Cheers, ] (]) 07:24, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

:::::::On one hand Coogan's view smacks of propaganda for liberal Christianity (as fundamentalists see mainstream Biblical scholarship as a Satanic plot for propagating liberal Christianity); on the other hand its opposite stance cuts against the grain of the Bible. ] (]) 07:35, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

Ah - I just saw that ] has had a ban imposed, so that probably explains the lack of response. I'll keep an eye out over the next few days. Cheers, ] (]) 07:37, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

:Let's sort this out: the image and likeness of the Elohim are male ''and'' female. Who are then the Elohim? ] (definitely male) and ] (definitely female). You see, the Ancient Hebrews worshiped a god and a goddess (among a plurality of other gods whose existence they admitted), only later polytheism evolved into monolatry and then into monotheism. ] (]) 21:35, 18 July 2019 (UTC)

=== Full disclosure ===

There was a sharp break between ancient Israelite religion and the Judaism of the Second Temple.{{sfn|Moore|Kelle|2011|p=449}} Pre-exilic Israel was ];{{sfn|Albertz|1994a|p=61}} ] was probably worshiped as Yahweh's consort, within his temples in Jerusalem, ], and Samaria, and a goddess called the ], probably a fusion of ] and the Mesopotamian goddess ], was also worshiped.{{sfn|Ackerman|2003|p=395}} ] and Yahweh coexisted in the early period, but were considered irreconcilable after the 9th century.{{sfn|Smith|2002|p=47}} The worship of Yahweh alone, the concern of a small party in the monarchic period, only gained ascendancy in the exilic and early post-exilic period,{{sfn|Albertz|1994a|p=61}} and it was only then that the very existence of other gods was denied.{{sfn|Betz|2000|p=917}}

Copy/paste from ]. ] (]) 00:08, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

:{{re|Tgeorgescu}} I think there's a problem here. According to our article:
::{{tq|Genesis 1:26-27 says that the elohim were male and female, and humans were made in their image.}}

:But Genesis 1:26-27 doesn't "say" that God/''elohim'' were male and female. At most this is an inference -- and a questionable one at best.

:What Gen 1:27 actually ''says'' is "God/''elohim'' created (singular) the human in his (masculine singlular) image; in the image of God/''elohim'' he created (singular) him; male and female he created (singular) them".
:Gen 1:26 is analysed in our article .

:It's an interesting conjecture that Gen 1:26 may contain an echo of an earlier wider pantheon, but by no means a necessary one, and, I would submit, not a consensus view. ] (]) 15:27, 19 July 2019 (UTC)
:: I agree, Genesis 1 does not "say" elohim were male and female (or that elohim is plural for that matter, the plural form is clearly used throughout the Hebrew Bible to refer to the one singular God); nor is Herzog's view that Yahweh and Asherah were the "most worshiped" gods a consensus view. I have removed the paragraph as not reflective of consensus, while discussion is under way here. ] (]) 16:30, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

:::Well, both ] and ] agree there is something masculine and feminine about God in Gen 1:26. If it is not the consensus view, it could be attributed to them. Also, Gesenius is a 19th century scholar, while Pagels, Coogan and Herzog reached into the 21st century. Herzog does not deny that other gods were worshiped, but most germane were Yahweh and Asherah, perhaps not "most worshiped". Also, the view that the Hebrew Bible has conserved remnants of polytheistic myths is by no means ]. There is an edx.org course from Bar Ilan University which makes that clear. Initially, Elohim meant ] and his children (gods). Later, Yahweh had cannibalized El and Baal, but still had Asherah as his wife. ] (]) 17:53, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

<blockquote>It seems almost certain that the God of the Jews evolved gradually from the Canaanite El, who was in all likelihood the "God of Abraham"... If El was the high God of Abraham—Elohim, the prototype of Yahveh—Asherah was his wife, and there are archaeological indications that she was perceived as such before she was in effect "divorced" in the context of emerging Judaism of the 7th century BCE. (See {{bibleverse|2|Kings|23:15|HE}}.)<ref>{{cite book
| last = Leeming
| first = David
| authorlink =
| year = 2005
| title = The Oxford Companion to World Mythology
| publisher = ]
| location = New York
| pages = 118
| isbn = 978-0-19-515669-0
| oclc = 60492027
| lccn = 2005014216
| url = https://books.google.com/?id=kQFtlva3HaYC&pg=PA118
}}</ref></blockquote>

:::Copy/paste from ]. So, arguing that a 19th century source trumps multiple ] from the 21st century is quite a weak argument, according to ]. What I would like to see are multiple ] Bible scholarship sources from the 21st century which deny Coogan's and Pagel's view. Of course, evangelical scholars will never agree with any theologically heterodox view, so I will discard such sources. If all they do is rubber-stamping biblical inerrancy, I don't think highly of such scholars and generally speaking they aren't mainstream, with the exception from . In their view, whatever Ivy Plus teach about the Bible is from the Devil. Evangelical scholars would say that Jews were (with certain partial lapses) monotheists since Abraham. Which, by our book, is a ] view.

:::So, there were more gods that Yahweh and Asherah? Fine, I have no problem with that. ] (]) 21:02, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

::::I would have thought the most relevant thing for this article is the plain meaning of Gen 1:27 -- that women as well as men were created ''b'tselem elohim'', in the image of God; so (according to the text) the characteristics of all humanity are reflections of God.
::::It seems disingenuous to me to bracket Pagels together with Coogan in this discussion. Their theses are quite different. Pagels explores gnostic ideas of God "as a dyadic being, who consists of both masculine and feminine elements" -- a single entity, with aspects of maleness and aspects of femaleness. This is quite a contrast to Coogan's proposal of a specific god and goddess couple.
::::A second question is what may be understood by the "image" of God. You seem determined to read it in physical terms. This is naive. After all, this is a text that talks of "the breath of God" moving over the face of the waters. The JPS Commentary on Genesis (Sarna, 1989) has an almost page-long discussion noting that the image/likeness language is a standard formula found in texts across Mesopotamia, Assyria, and Egypt where monarchs are described as being "the image" or "the likeness" of a god -- even gods of non-human form. It asserts a dominance and a mastery, a setting up above over the rest of creation, feeding straight into the next verse. "While he is not divine, his very existence bears withness to the activity of God in the world. This awareness inevitably entails an awesome responsibility and imposes a code of living that conforms with the consciousness of that fact." The difference in Genesis is that it is mankind that is being described as being the image of God, rather than a monarch.
::::Similarly in the commentary by Plaut (2005) the words emphasise "the Torah's abiding wonder over our special status in Creation, over our unique intellectual capacity, which bears the imprint of the Creator. This likeness also describes our moral potential. Our nature is radically different from God's, but we are capable of approaching God's ''actions'': divine love, divine mercy, divine justice. Our likeness to the Divine has a third and most important meaning. It stresses the essential holiness, and, by implication, the dignity of all humanity, without distinction."
::::It's also worth noting that the early chapters of Genesis, and Genesis 1 in particular, are often now argued to be late compositions, dating specifically from the Exilic period -- a period in which the Israelite conception of God had become much more universalist, less local; and more abstract, less corporeal. This would mitigate against Cooper's thesis of a strong Canaanite inheritance in the text.
::::Finally I think we misrepresent Cooper in the previously current text. He doesn't say that "Genesis 1:26-27 says that the elohim were male and female", rather he says that he is presenting this as an alternative interpretation, at variance with the traditional translation. I don't have a problem with us presenting this as Cooper's suggestion, together if you like with his further suggestion that the model could "more likely" then be "Yahweh and his goddess companion", rather the whole pantheon. But it should not be presented as a consensus fact; indeed, per ], it should not be given more prominence than it has been received with in secondary and tertiary overviews. ] (]) 22:31, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

:::::Ok, I have performed the change. Coogan does say that Asherah could mean (i) Yahweh's wife or (ii) Yahweh's ritual pole, but that all these available mainstream interpretations are equally heretical to the theological orthodoxy. ] (]) 02:54, 20 July 2019 (UTC)
:::::: I still think the "hint" is ] - the section is titled 'In the Hebrew and Christian Bible'. Why does this belong in this article and this section, which is not about the history of religion? ] (]) 08:04, 20 July 2019 (UTC)
:::::::Why do you think that God=god+goddess wouldn't be germane to this article? ] (]) 08:32, 22 July 2019 (UTC)
::::::::I didn't make any comment about what I do and don't think is germane to the article as a whole. The section under discussion is about the Hebrew and Christian Bible (text), and the current inclusion is one scholar's view on what his interpretation of a word in that text "hints" at about the practice of religion in a particular era. That seems like a stretch to include in this particular section, whether or not it could or should be included anywhere else. ] (]) 02:30, 23 July 2019 (UTC)
:::::::::Would you suggest another section? ] (]) 20:23, 24 July 2019 (UTC)

=== References ===
{{reflist talk}}

== Gender of God or gods ==

I made an edit for the lead to begin:

:The '''gender of God''', or of gods, can be viewed as a literal or as an ] aspect of a ] or of deities.

This was on the basis that the lead continues:

:In ] religions, ''the gods'' are more likely to have literal sexual genders which would enable them to interact with each other, and even with humans, in a sexual way.

And that a whole section is dedicated to: ] within which there are many gods.

The edit was reverted by {{u|Jheald}} on the claim that "this article is specifically about monotheistic conceptions of God" which is not the case in regard to Hinduism. Is there a route to clarification?

]] 13:06, 26 August 2015 (UTC)

== in Islam - Allah Gender ==

Dear Editors
this part is totally incorrect , God (Allah) is genderless and the reference to Him as He, is just the nature of Arabic, we refer to the moon as He and the sun as She, etc. the pronoun "Hiya" is not mentioned in Sura Ikhlas. <!-- Template:Unsigned --><small class="autosigned">—&nbsp;Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 10:52, 2 November 2020 (UTC)</small> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->

== It’s god a woman or man ==

Women ] (]) 00:01, 5 March 2022 (UTC)

== Grammar ==

Gender of God is ] (]) 15:39, 23 September 2022 (UTC)

:Yes, the gender is generally referred to in the singular in the article. —''']''' (]) 16:36, 23 September 2022 (UTC)

==Wiki Education assignment: Psychology of Gender==
{{dashboard.wikiedu.org assignment | course = Misplaced Pages:Wiki_Ed/Illinois_Institute_of_Technology/Psychology_of_Gender_(Spring_2024) | assignments = ] | start_date = 2024-01-08 | end_date = 2024-04-28 }}

<span class="wikied-assignment" style="font-size:85%;">— Assignment last updated by ] (]) 02:33, 29 April 2024 (UTC)</span>

== Gender of God ==

About the gender of God. I was looking at something else on the internet and I came across this topic that whoever is in charge of Misplaced Pages is wrong! God is not a female he was never a mother! Deuteronomy 32:18 says of the Rock who begot you, you are unmindful and have forgotten the God who fathered you. That's what Deuteronomy 32:18 says! It does not say he is as a mother in that verse according to the words of Misplaced Pages! I have studied the Bible since 2006 and I continue to study it twice daily, every day and I have been a Christian for 18 years and I attend my church on a regular basis, but God was never a mother he is always a father, a male not a female! Just thought I clear that up for everybody! So do not mistaken God as a female or as a mother he is all three Trinities of the person within him; in other words he is God the Father, he is Jesus Christ as Son, and is the Holy Spirit all in one person! But he was never a mother or even acted as a mother! He is all male through and through! ] (]) 14:56, 27 April 2024 (UTC)

:Being a Christian and studying the Bible does not give you special editing rights. Unless you read the Bible in Koine Greek, Hebrew, Latin, Coptic, Syriac and know your Aramaic, you're not in the same league with the Bible professors we ] in this article. ] (]) 16:55, 27 April 2024 (UTC)

Latest revision as of 01:26, 22 October 2024

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Philosophy

I have removed the following sentences (and corresponding references) from the "Evolutionary Process" section as it gives the false impression that metaphysics is somehow "over" in analytic philosophy and philosophy in general, arguably glossing over and/or ignoring the work done in the past few decades done by Kripke, Putnam, Lewis, Armstrong and many others. They read:

...nor in philosophy. Analytic philosophy widely considers speculative metaphysics to be outside the reach of epistemology and scientific scrutiny. — Preceding unsigned comment added by T of Locri (talkcontribs) 08:35, 31 March 2011 (UTC)

Son of God

The issue of "son of God" or "Son of God" is barely relevant to the article, but since Jeffro has raised it again, and the issues do have some circumstantial relationship to the article, I'll make a second brief response here. I trust Jeffro would not argue that "Jesus Christ, son of God" must be correct. In 99% of uses, son is appositional, an atheist describing Christian belief would write, "Jesus Christ, Son of God". It would be possible, though I'd love to see a source attesting it, to say "Jesus Christ, son of God", just as one might say "Adam, son of God" or "David, son of God". Here the intent is "Adam, son of God", the lower case is shorthand for a non-unique representative of a class (I believe Discourse Representation Theory suggests an implicit quantifier is introduced along with a new discourse variable in such constructions). In the same way, the capital is merely shorthand for the definite article in the case of Jesus, who some contend is the unique Son of God (while also being truly a son of God simultaneously). One thing that decieves people in cases like this is English possessive constructions. In Greek and Hebrew (the languages on which theories about Jesus are ultimately dependent), there are different ways of forming the constructions, which make the issue easier to see. Hebrew (typical of Semitic languages generally) uses a construct state in which a chain of modifiers precede a noun in the absolute state. Long chains are possible—"the children of the wives of the advisors of the king" (the last is absolute, the modifiers are construct). Where the absolute noun is definite, the whole chain is definite. B'n Elohim or the Son of God is definite because Elohim God is definite. Circumlocutions make it possible to avoid the implication of definiteness if required. Greek has multiple ways of saying "Son of God" again with different nuances of definiteness—ho tou theou quios (literally, the of-God Son) is a very natural Greek construction, it would use an indefinite particle were it to wish to avoid definiteness in regard to such statements.

I'd be very interested if Jeffro could provide some sources that show usage of Jesus being describe as "son of God" with a lower case "s". Otherwise, whatever he is suggesting regarding English syntax, might be true and I'm just missing his point, but is not particularly relevant, because it is hypothetical. Sources secular or devotional all use the capital, so even if I agreed with Jeffro, we'd be best off dropping it, because no consensus would form in opposition to the strong precedent of sources. What do you say Jeffro? Let sleeping dogs lie? Alastair Haines (talk) 01:46, 4 December 2008 (UTC)

I "raised it again" purely because it seemed to be the only thing that might remotely resemble a basis for your claim that I had argued with the OED (which remains unclear). Insofar as your statement that atheists would capitalise (I've determined that you're also Australian so I'll drop the US spelling here) 'Son of God', I think they would be the least likely to do so.
To clarify my position on this so there is no doubt... if using the phrase as a title (' Son of God'), it would indeed properly be capitalised. In a statement such as 'Jesus was the son of God' in the same manner as 'Albert Einstein was the son of Hermann Einstein', it would be proper to use 'son', though 'Jesus was the Son of God' would be correct in the manner of 'Charles is the Prince of Wales'. No statement herein should be inferred as any opinion as to the existence of a god, gods, God, or to any progeny of such entities of any gender, or no gender.--Jeffro77 (talk) 02:38, 4 December 2008 (UTC)
You're Australian! He he, drat. Work hard while I'm away mate, 'cause Tim and I are serious about scrutinising things when we return. Hmmm, you're Aussie, that does make it harder to tell you what I really think. ;) Don't drink and drive over the silly season and avagoodweekend! Alastair Haines (talk) 15:53, 4 December 2008 (UTC)

The Bible states (using theism) that God created man in his image, this man being exactly that: a man, only after the men was asleep and a rib was removed was a woman created. Since god created a woman for the man and man was created first, God must be a man, since he created the first being in his image.--72.74.114.109 (talk) 03:12, 9 December 2009 (UTC)

polytheism/pantheism

I don't really have any input on the JCI issues. However, I did notice that the "Polytheism" section sort of describes a form of pantheism. In a nutshell, Polytheism is the belief in many distinct gods, of various genders (including neutral or hermaphroditic - the Norse Loki does gender switching IIRC). They may or may not source from (or really be part of) one older god. Pantheism is the belief that many gods are worshiped separately, but are actually all one. (The reason I haven't stuffed this into the article is that I haven't gone and dug up sources yet.)

But the polytheistic stuff seems somewhat out of place here. Polytheists don't have to ask what gender Thor is, or Diana, or Artemis. Do the non-JCI religions even belong here, or is the article really about "The gender of God in the Judeo-Christian-Islamic traditions"?

--RavanAsteris (talk) 02:55, 29 January 2010 (UTC)

Yes, I know I reopened a can of worms, but the way the article reads the non-JCI sections are just after-thoughts or bolt-ons.

--RavanAsteris (talk) 03:20, 29 January 2010 (UTC)

The polytheism section doesn't contain any material about gender at all, so I'm going to be bold and remove it. --Alynna (talk) 12:18, 1 February 2010 (UTC)
Ah, that's what else was bothering me about it - the section as written had nothing to do with the topic! Thanks for the sanity check. --RavanAsteris (talk) 03:46, 2 February 2010 (UTC)

The Shack

Hello, all. Just wanted to point out that in the (bestselling?) book, "The Shack", God appears as a woman for most of the book (despite the name "Papa"). Shall I add that to the "Pop Culture" section? Or is a novel not considered Pop Culture? Bpenguin17 (talk) 22:32, 28 March 2010 (UTC)

Excellent work of fiction for sure which was quite poplar and was also made in to a movie . . . I would answer your 2010 question as yes, it should go in to Pop Culture . . . just a note on the author's view that God is a black woman . . . Jesus depicted as a country type hick, no disrespect, and the Holy Spirit as a woman . . . i loved it . . . when I read God's word, the Bible, when i look at the Greek and the Hebrew and the Aramaic i too see God (Father Son Holy Spirit) a lot differently given studying the languages . . . CharleneHios (talk) 19:22, 17 November 2023 (UTC)

Orphaned references in Gender of God

I check pages listed in Category:Pages with incorrect ref formatting to try to fix reference errors. One of the things I do is look for content for orphaned references in wikilinked articles. I have found content for some of Gender of God's orphans, the problem is that I found more than one version. I can't determine which (if any) is correct for this article, so I am asking for a sentient editor to look it over and copy the correct ref content into this article.

Reference named "britannica":

I apologize if any of the above are effectively identical; I am just a simple computer program, so I can't determine whether minor differences are significant or not. AnomieBOT 23:05, 28 March 2010 (UTC)

Indo European root from the American Heritage Dictionary

the AHD's indo european roots appendix states that the root for God is Gheu (ə) -. The root means: To call, invoke. I find it interesting that the other english word from this root is "giddy", as in insane or possessed. So god may be considered more of a verb than a noun, and genderless. hey, its not my research.Mercurywoodrose (talk) 03:57, 11 January 2011 (UTC)

Candidate for deletion?

Is it really necessary to have an article about the gender of an imaginary being, where gender is not a relevant concept anyway? 51kwad (talk) 12:09, 24 January 2011 (UTC)

Even if you're right about God being imaginary, WP has numerous articles about imaginary beings, including Mickey Mouse. Would you like to get rid of all of those articles? As for the relevance of concepts of gender to God, that is a topic of serious discussion among people who write about God, as well as those who worship God. Kalidasa 777 (talk) 07:20, 13 March 2011 (UTC)

Does God need a gender?

Is this topic still in discussion? God created male and female within material creation for the purpose of reproduction. Because humans are social beings sex and gender have relationship and social aspects for us. But since God is Spirit there is no need for gender. The use of He in referring to God is a condition of human language. "It" would be inappropriate. In Judaism and Christianity (O.T. and N.T.) God is sometimes called Father as an indication of a profoundly intimate and caring concern for us and our lives. God is above gender.--Margaret9mary (talk) 20:59, 4 August 2012 (UTC)

That may be your belief. Other believers are equally adamant for theirs. Frex:
It seems that if God exists, it has chosen not to resolve this dispute. So its gender, for those who care about it, shall remain an issue. ~ Robin Lionheart (talk) 21:37, 4 August 2012 (UTC)
I certainly didn't bring up the subject of God as female--however to clarify. Many languages do not have a pronoun especially for God. So the question is--what pronoun to use? So "He" for God (both capitalized) is often used.
For humans the pronouns used are "he" and "she." "It" is used usually for objects in English, or with pejorative intent (Latin-based languages are different). For a number of centuries references to humans used the terms "man," "men" and "mankind" with the unspoken implication that they included womenkind--their use certainly didn't exclude women. These usages involve the real limitations of human languages.
But the use of He for God doesn't mean that God is a superhuman male. Genesis 1:27 says "God created man in His image....male and female He created them"
Since God is Spirit, does it mean that God created us with souls? The Bible doesn't clarify the point. However Jesus, the Son of God was certainly male in his physical body.
I don't think God is female; the Bible says "God created... male and female." (is this limited to material creation?)--Margaret9mary (talk) 00:29, 7 August 2012 (UTC)
God is male, because, in the bible, it states that he created man 'in his own image', and this man just happened to be Adam, a male. If he created a person in his own image, and made the person male, that means the God himself is male as well, no?
Just to clear out any confusion, God created Eve because there was no suitable partner for Adam. In other words, Eve was NOT created in God's own image. 112.165.73.185 (talk) 15:48, 20 July 2024 (UTC)
The initial gender of Adam is debatable, in Juddaism, Adam was androgynos, while others claim the woman that was created before Eve was Lilith. Because when God created Adam, he created a man-woman or a man and a woman, depending on the translation or wording. Web-julio (talk) 18:00, 20 July 2024 (UTC)
And the word man is used in a nongendered way Web-julio (talk) 18:00, 20 July 2024 (UTC)

To give a more NPOV this is true only in monotheistic religions--and the article as it stands says this. I think what is frustrating for many women today is that men tend to assume that God is male like them, feel threatened by the idea that God is not male like a human male and shut out any spiritual insights women might have. Jesus listened to women and responded to them (See the Marriage at Cana, Mary and Martha, Mary Magdalene as the first witness to the Resurrection). It's something the early Christian church accepted at first, then soon began to abandon. Why can't men follow Jesus? (I wish I didn't have to express this POV, but men often express a purely masculine POV and eliminate any insights women can contribute.)--Margaret9mary (talk) 01:01, 7 August 2012 (UTC)

Not all your Bible's authors favored listening to and responding to women. Frex, 1 Corinthians 14:34-35: "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." Is it any wonder why so many Christian men are male chauvinists? ~ Robin Lionheart (talk) 11:10, 27 August 2012 (UTC)
The idea is: Misplaced Pages does not decide if God has a gender. Misplaced Pages simply makes an inventory of the notable opinions thereupon, the most notable and widespread being that God is male (whatever male could mean for God/a spirit). We don't take sides in this matter, all such notable opinions are worthy of being mentioned. Tgeorgescu (talk) 23:00, 10 September 2012 (UTC)


Comparative Religion - Role of language

I would like to see some examples and citations to flesh out this potentially interesting point. Sadly, I'm not the person to add this information, but as an interested reader, I'd say it lacks clarity and credibility in it's current state. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Cspooner (talkcontribs) 18:04, 23 April 2011 (UTC)

carm.org

This website aims to show that the Catholic Church and the Islam are heresies. Therefore it is not a reliable source anyway one would look at it. It is a highly polemic source instead of being academically descriptive. I have reverted edits based upon carm.org propaganda. Tgeorgescu (talk) 22:39, 10 July 2013 (UTC)

In a historical, anthropological and sociological sense Christian are the persons/churches who define themselves as Christian. Tgeorgescu (talk) 22:43, 10 July 2013 (UTC)

Genesis 1:26-27:

In the article, in the section, "In the Hebrew and Christian Bible" (http://en.wikipedia.org/Gender_of_God#In_the_Hebrew_and_Christian_Bible), the claim is made that Elohim was male and female, and they made man in their image.

On the contrary, nowhere in Genesis is a female identity assigned to YHWH the Father, or to Ha Mashiach the son. In addition, if there was any doubt about the gender of the son, (because we can easily confirm the gender of the Father), we can check John 1:1-4:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with YHWH, and the Word was Elohim. The same was in the beginning with YHWH." This shows that this "Word" (the second entity in Elohim, also known as the Messiah) was the same individual who was conversing with the Father in Genesis 1:26-27, since it says clearly that "The same was in the beginning with YHWH".

And what gender was this "Word", that was with the Father during the creation? We can continue reading at John 1:3-4: "All things were made by HIM, and without HIM was not anything made that was made. In HIM was life, and the life was the light of all men."

I have taken the liberty to remove the false statement that Genesis 1:26-27 speak of a female Messiah who was with the Father. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 190.59.15.18 (talk) 18:27, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

That is original research based upon primary sources, does not beat verifiable information from reliable sources. Tgeorgescu (talk) 18:41, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
It is not "original research". It is quoting directly from the Bible itself. All other research is "original research", based on the Bible. Quoting from the Scripture is not "research"; it is citation. Saying that citing the Bible is "original research" is the same as saying that citing the constitution is "original research". Calling a secondary article "verifiable information" that has more credibility than the Bible itself is the same as saying that a Law student's thesis is more "verifiable information" than the constitution itself. That is flawed logic. Nomnompuffs (talk) 19:36, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
What I just told you is well-established Misplaced Pages practice. We don't perform original research upon the Bible, Koran, Vedas, etc., but instead we trust scholars to perform this analysis for us. Coogan is a top of the food chain Bible scholar. See also WP:RNPOV. Tgeorgescu (talk) 19:55, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Torah isn't a reliable source. Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:00, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Re: Your second revert: I noticed that after I replied, you weaseled in another revert, even though there is a very pronounced time between my response and your revert; i.e, it looks as if you would have seen my response here on the talk page, and then chosen to sneakily revert anyway. I'd like to ask you to respect the discussion process, and the entire purpose of the "Talk page" dialogue system, and engage in due dialogue when disputing changes. I have a right to contribute to the body of knowledge, and to remove factual inaccuracies, as does every other editor of the Wiki.
In addition, the name of the section is "In the Hebrew and Christian Bible", so the only logical and standing final authority on this particular section is the Hebrew and Christian bible. My citations are from this very text, the Hebrew and Christian Bible. I have done nothing but correct a factual misattribution which misquotes the Hebrew and Christian Bible.
Please show where or how my edit is not consistent with the Hebrew and Christian Bible, or else please refrain from further vandalization and opinionated reverts. Torah is a reliable source when the very section being edited is specifically describing the contents of the Torah section of the Hebrew and Christian Bible. Nomnompuffs (talk) 20:03, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
No, Torah isn't a reliable source for anything on Misplaced Pages. You may want to read WP:SOURCES and WP:PRIMARY. Then read WP:RNPOV. Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:05, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
See also Template:Religious text primary which acknowledges this. Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:09, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Translating the Bible is a highly contentious process. Interpreting the Bible is a highly contentious process. That's why Misplaced Pages only trusts scholars to render the viewpoints of the Bible, and does not allow for original research based upon the Bible. Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:12, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
The section in question is asking, "What does the Hebrew and Christian Bible have to say on the Gender of God". I have not interpreted anything. I cited the source. The view follows naturally. I did not need to interpret anything. It flowed naturally from the letter of the text.
Again, since the section being edited is a section on the view of "God" in the Hebrew and Christian Bible, and the originally disputed quotation is from Genesis 1:26-27, which is a Torah verse, the Torah is clearly the only final authority on anything written in this section. As a corollary of this, I ask you to prove that, from the Hebrew and Christian Bibles, the "Elohim" spoken of in Genesis 1:26-27 had a Female component.
The burden of proof now lies with you. I have already proven, from the Hebrew and Christian Bible that it does not say this. In order for you to argue the opposite and perform any further reverts, it is left to you to prove, from the Hebrew and Christian Bible, that is does indeed say that there is a female component to Elohim the Creator, described in Genesis 1:26-27. I have again taken the liberty to revert your reversion.
Please stop vandalizing the article, and respect the due process of burden of evidence. I have already, from the final authority on the section, given evidence.
The only possible source of evidence for an analysis of the Hebrew and Christian Bible is the Hebrew and Christian Bible. This is basic logic. The section is asking, "What does the Hebrew and Christian Bible say?". Nomnompuffs (talk) 20:16, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
You either play by the Misplaced Pages rules or leave. The choice is yours. The burden of proof has been satisfied according to WP:VER through citing a reliable source. The Torah isn't an authority upon the Torah. You are not a reliable source and neither is Torah. Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:21, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
I am now very confident that the next step you will take is to ban me from further edits, so before you do this, I will take the liberty to point out the insanity in the reasoning that you are using to justify your reverts:
You just said, in your own words, and I quote: "The Torah isn't an authority upon the Torah.".
Let the record bear that this person who is acting in the name and the authority of Misplaced Pages is being headstrong, and denying the very basic logical premise that the contents of a book written as they appear, are the final authority on the content of that book. It follows naturally that a copy of Macbeth is the final authority on what is written in the book, Macbeth.
It also follows then, that the contents of the book, the Bible, are the final authority on the contents of the Bible. I am again, about to take the liberty to revert your revert, if you have done it again, since again, the burden of proof remains with you, as I have already provided, from the final authority, evidence to support my original change.
I will also again, for the record, ask that you respect and follow the due process of burden of proof and provide proof for a female component of "Elohim", as described in Genesis 1:26-27, which is the very text that is disputed by this entire discussion. Nomnompuffs (talk) 20:31, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Torah isn't an academic treatise about the Torah. In respect to analyzing the Torah, Misplaced Pages only trusts scholars, who publish peer-reviewed research and books edited by academic publishing houses (scientific/scholarly publishers). Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:40, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
That is flawed logic, irrational and insanity.
The situation is this: the original content of the article before I came here were inconsistent with the text of the Bible. I corrected this, and gave relevant citations. At this point, regardless of how you look at it, you have no right to intervene as a moderating influence. Your closest right to intervene is in the capacity of an independent editor, because I have not broken protocol or caused discord. I have disputed the content of the article, and provided relevant citations, as any editor should.
Your intervention in the capacity of a Moderator is an abuse of privileges. At most you should be presenting proof of a Female component in the Genesis account, as any other editor is obliged to do. I reject your current actions in the capacity of a moderator in this matter, on the basis of your flawed logic, your inability to prove that the Hebrew and Christian Bible describes a female component to Elohim, and your disrespect, and high-handed abuse of the due process of dispute.
Additionally, calling your logic "insanity" is not calling you "insane", and there is a difference between the two. The former is an attack on your epistemology. The latter is an attack on your person. You seem to be very intent on building a case to use to silence and censor me on this matter, by finding an excuse to ban me. I will again revert any revert you have made, pending proof from you, or anyone else that there is a Female component to Elohim, as described in the Hebrew and Christian Bible. Nomnompuffs (talk) 20:56, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

Your words, images and ideas are not suppressed, simply not being promulgated on the website of a private charity. You are free to post your words, images and ideas on your own website, blog, newspaper, podcast, tshirt, bumper sticker or other form of free speech. There is a handy essay here, WP:Alternative outlets. Perhaps your website will be of such quality that millions will turn to it for information. There are quite a few places to start a blog free of charge....

— MrBill3 (talk) 01:59, 31 August 2014 (UTC)

Quoted by Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:32, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

I have listed this discussion on the Active Disagreements, awaiting a 3rd opinion. Let the record show that two moderators, Jim1138 and C.Fred have reverted changes without even appearing once on the talk page, and have therefore violated due process of discussion. Nomnompuffs (talk) 21:34, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Don't push your luck. By Misplaced Pages rules, this isn't a disagreement, it is reverting vandalism. You are not entitled to remove sourced text just because you do not like it and prefer to think that the Torah would support you. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:40, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
And you did not provide any evidence, as you have falsely claimed there, you are just pontificating about what the Bible is supposed to mean. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:47, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
My revert was strictly procedural: I felt the better option, as an administrator, was to revert Nomnompuffs' violation of WP:3RR rather than block him for the violation. —C.Fred (talk) 21:51, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
I am directly quoting you now; you just said, "Don't push your luck". Are you saying that it is "luck", or a privilege that you have granted me, to edit the public domain Encyclopedia, known as Misplaced Pages? How am I "lucky" to be engaging in this dispute? And how is it "pushing my luck" to list my disagreement on the Disagreement page? Is it that you see me as a lesser contributor because I have a view that seems to be opposed to yours?
In that case, where view clashes with view, we must let the authoritative source be the final arbiter. Which is precisely what I have done. I am not acting on luck; I have respected the rules of scholarly debate, and provided citations from the final source.
There is no luck involved here. If you ban me without due discussion and without carrying your burden of proof which you still have not done, it is not that I have been vanquished by a "higher being" who has poured out retribution upon me for daring to oppose its illogic. It is that a Misplaced Pages Moderator has disrespected protocol and the due process of dispute, and denigrated the dignity of Misplaced Pages's open platform for credible contribution to the body of knowledge through examination of authoritative souces.
Your condescension and feelings of entitlement and high-handedness are showing. Nomnompuffs (talk) 21:54, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
@Nomnompuffs: Part of "protocol and the due process of dispute" is the three revert rule, which you have broken. If we were to enforce that strictly, you would already be temporarily blocked. That aside, I suggest you focus here on discussion of reliable sources surrounding your desired edit, paying particular not of Misplaced Pages guidelines' preference for secondary sources over primary. —C.Fred (talk) 21:57, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
For the record, I am new to contributing to Misplaced Pages, which is why you can clearly see at the very beginning of this dispute (and in the History Log for the article) that my contribution was done without a registered account. That is not an excuse or justification for me having broken the "3 Revert Rule", but it does help to remove the indirect accusation leveled at me, that I have not respected protocol. I was not aware that there was a "3 Revert Rule". In every other respect in as much as there exist basic rules for scholarly debate, I have been respectful of those common-knowledge rules. Nomnompuffs (talk) 22:07, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
@Nomnompuffs: The first edit on the top of your talk page is a warning about your edit warring. Jim1138 (talk) 22:10, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
Nomnompuffs, if you are a newbie, you can be excused for not knowing the rules. But not acknowledging the rules after you have been repeatedly warned of breaking them is not wisdom. As I told you, your choice is to abide by the rules and become a productive editor or break them and be blocked. If we compare a reference based upon Coogan's work with your pontification about the Bible, it is comparing evidence with a mere whim. All editors have opinions and philosophers think that opinion is the lowest form of knowledge; that's why Misplaced Pages only renders reliable sources. Tgeorgescu (talk) 22:17, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
As I have already said: I was not attempting to excuse or justify the infraction. I was simply unaware. It is a statement not for vindication, but for disambiguation of motive. Your statement above here doesn't conflict with that. But I am sure that any reader who examines the statement will be rational enough to realize the redundancy of your statement and draw the same conclusion. Nomnompuffs (talk) 22:24, 1 September 2014 (UTC)
It remains a mystery to me how could you have remained unaware of the rules while the warning messages were delivered in real time. Tgeorgescu (talk) 22:30, 1 September 2014 (UTC)

3O

Hi, I hope to be of some assistance in resolving the issue flagged on the 3O page. I have very limited familiarity with biblical scholarship, so I hope I can bring a relatively unbiased voice to the discussion. As I understand it, the question is whether there is a female component implied/embedded in the word "Elohim". Is that correct? If so, are there any WP:RS's which indicate this to be the case? Cheers, Blippy (talk) 05:10, 2 September 2014 (UTC)

Well, there is a book by Michael Coogan, which is properly cited in the footnotes. Besides, if we are to pontificate about the Bible (see above), it intuitively makes sense: the image of God is male and female, the likeness of God is male and female, therefore God (or Elohim) is/are male and female (Elohim is a plural). Tgeorgescu (talk) 15:40, 2 September 2014 (UTC)
In order to repeat myself, this wasn't a conflict between two scholarly views, presented by different reliable sources. It simply was removal of sourced information because the editor has his/her own interpretation of the Torah and therefore does not like what the cited reliable source said (source written by a world-class authority on the Hebrew Bible). So it is basically a conflict between verifiable information and original research, and the user got blocked for not ceasing reverting. No editor is allowed to delete sourced information simply because he/she does not like it. Chaos would ensue if we would allow that to happen. So, it was a conflict between vandalism and reverting vandalism, regardless of how noble the reasons for vandalism were. Tgeorgescu (talk) 15:59, 2 September 2014 (UTC)
So, the editor has abused the third opinion process. This was a conflict between something (verifiable information) and nothing (original research). A third opinion could only exist between something and something, not between something and nothing. Tgeorgescu (talk) 16:14, 2 September 2014 (UTC)
Thanks for that Tgeorgescu, I guess you answered my question ;-) So there are WP:RS's which the article cited. Is that your understanding Nomnompuffs? Do you also have WP:RS's for the edit/s you wished to make? Cheers, Blippy (talk) 01:01, 3 September 2014 (UTC)
I cannot answer instead him/her, but Elaine Pagels states that the same theological opinion as Coogan's is part of the Judeo-Christian tradition (to put it bluntly, Gnostics were Christians). Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:47, 3 September 2014 (UTC)
So I presume that if there are sources stating that Elohim is both male & female - it is likely they are responding to other sources which say this is not the case? Do any WP:RS's along those lines exist? Cheers, Blippy (talk) 23:46, 3 September 2014 (UTC)
Pagels clearly states that God is mostly seen as male in the Judeo-Christian tradition (and that is what our Misplaced Pages article states, as abiding by WP:DUE), she also states that there are exceptions from this rule, one being an interpretation of Gen. 1:26-27. She is non-judgmental about this interpretation, she reports it as a fact about a notable theological opinion. Considering her whole article, she agrees with the idea that God was sometimes seen as female. Tgeorgescu (talk) 06:52, 4 September 2014 (UTC)
If there are sources which state that the image and likeness of God is male but not female, I frankly don't know, but interpreting the Bible literally this would be a bizarre position (even more bizarre that God is both male and female, since the later does not contradict the letter of the Bible). Tgeorgescu (talk) 07:05, 4 September 2014 (UTC)
So I understand that God being male and female is offending some religious sensibilities, but we are not censored for their protection. The really offensive stance would be that the image and likeness of God is male but not female, since it would offend both religious sensibilities and human reason in general (which can examine what is written in the Bible regardless of the religious persuasion of the reader). Tgeorgescu (talk) 07:20, 4 September 2014 (UTC)
Thanks again Tgeorgescu. I guess I was just sounding out whether Nomnompuff's edit was indicative of a broader dispute which might warrant inclusion or explanation - as opposed to what happened (i.e. an unsourced WP:OR edit). Anyway, Nomnompuff doesn't seem particularly active on this talk page at the moment, so I'm happy to wait a bit longer to see if they want to chat/clarify things further, otherwise it looks reasonably straight forward from my perspective. Cheers, Blippy (talk) 07:24, 4 September 2014 (UTC)
On one hand Coogan's view smacks of propaganda for liberal Christianity (as fundamentalists see mainstream Biblical scholarship as a Satanic plot for propagating liberal Christianity); on the other hand its opposite stance cuts against the grain of the Bible. Tgeorgescu (talk) 07:35, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

Ah - I just saw that Nomnompuffs has had a ban imposed, so that probably explains the lack of response. I'll keep an eye out over the next few days. Cheers, Blippy (talk) 07:37, 4 September 2014 (UTC)

Let's sort this out: the image and likeness of the Elohim are male and female. Who are then the Elohim? Yahweh (definitely male) and Asherah (definitely female). You see, the Ancient Hebrews worshiped a god and a goddess (among a plurality of other gods whose existence they admitted), only later polytheism evolved into monolatry and then into monotheism. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:35, 18 July 2019 (UTC)

Full disclosure

There was a sharp break between ancient Israelite religion and the Judaism of the Second Temple. Pre-exilic Israel was polytheistic; Asherah was probably worshiped as Yahweh's consort, within his temples in Jerusalem, Bethel, and Samaria, and a goddess called the Queen of Heaven, probably a fusion of Astarte and the Mesopotamian goddess Ishtar, was also worshiped. Baal and Yahweh coexisted in the early period, but were considered irreconcilable after the 9th century. The worship of Yahweh alone, the concern of a small party in the monarchic period, only gained ascendancy in the exilic and early post-exilic period, and it was only then that the very existence of other gods was denied.

Copy/paste from Second Temple Judaism. Tgeorgescu (talk) 00:08, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

@Tgeorgescu: I think there's a problem here. According to our article:
Genesis 1:26-27 says that the elohim were male and female, and humans were made in their image.
But Genesis 1:26-27 doesn't "say" that God/elohim were male and female. At most this is an inference -- and a questionable one at best.
What Gen 1:27 actually says is "God/elohim created (singular) the human in his (masculine singlular) image; in the image of God/elohim he created (singular) him; male and female he created (singular) them".
Gen 1:26 is analysed in our article Elohim.
It's an interesting conjecture that Gen 1:26 may contain an echo of an earlier wider pantheon, but by no means a necessary one, and, I would submit, not a consensus view. Jheald (talk) 15:27, 19 July 2019 (UTC)
I agree, Genesis 1 does not "say" elohim were male and female (or that elohim is plural for that matter, the plural form is clearly used throughout the Hebrew Bible to refer to the one singular God); nor is Herzog's view that Yahweh and Asherah were the "most worshiped" gods a consensus view. I have removed the paragraph as not reflective of consensus, while discussion is under way here. Melcous (talk) 16:30, 19 July 2019 (UTC)
Well, both Elaine Pagels and Michael Coogan agree there is something masculine and feminine about God in Gen 1:26. If it is not the consensus view, it could be attributed to them. Also, Gesenius is a 19th century scholar, while Pagels, Coogan and Herzog reached into the 21st century. Herzog does not deny that other gods were worshiped, but most germane were Yahweh and Asherah, perhaps not "most worshiped". Also, the view that the Hebrew Bible has conserved remnants of polytheistic myths is by no means WP:FRINGE. There is an edx.org course from Bar Ilan University which makes that clear. Initially, Elohim meant El (god) and his children (gods). Later, Yahweh had cannibalized El and Baal, but still had Asherah as his wife. Tgeorgescu (talk) 17:53, 19 July 2019 (UTC)

It seems almost certain that the God of the Jews evolved gradually from the Canaanite El, who was in all likelihood the "God of Abraham"... If El was the high God of Abraham—Elohim, the prototype of Yahveh—Asherah was his wife, and there are archaeological indications that she was perceived as such before she was in effect "divorced" in the context of emerging Judaism of the 7th century BCE. (See 2 Kings 23:15.)

Copy/paste from El (deity). So, arguing that a 19th century source trumps multiple WP:RS from the 21st century is quite a weak argument, according to WP:RULES. What I would like to see are multiple WP:MAINSTREAM Bible scholarship sources from the 21st century which deny Coogan's and Pagel's view. Of course, evangelical scholars will never agree with any theologically heterodox view, so I will discard such sources. If all they do is rubber-stamping biblical inerrancy, I don't think highly of such scholars and generally speaking they aren't mainstream, with the exception from . In their view, whatever Ivy Plus teach about the Bible is from the Devil. Evangelical scholars would say that Jews were (with certain partial lapses) monotheists since Abraham. Which, by our book, is a WP:FRINGE view.
So, there were more gods that Yahweh and Asherah? Fine, I have no problem with that. Tgeorgescu (talk) 21:02, 19 July 2019 (UTC)
I would have thought the most relevant thing for this article is the plain meaning of Gen 1:27 -- that women as well as men were created b'tselem elohim, in the image of God; so (according to the text) the characteristics of all humanity are reflections of God.
It seems disingenuous to me to bracket Pagels together with Coogan in this discussion. Their theses are quite different. Pagels explores gnostic ideas of God "as a dyadic being, who consists of both masculine and feminine elements" -- a single entity, with aspects of maleness and aspects of femaleness. This is quite a contrast to Coogan's proposal of a specific god and goddess couple.
A second question is what may be understood by the "image" of God. You seem determined to read it in physical terms. This is naive. After all, this is a text that talks of "the breath of God" moving over the face of the waters. The JPS Commentary on Genesis (Sarna, 1989) has an almost page-long discussion noting that the image/likeness language is a standard formula found in texts across Mesopotamia, Assyria, and Egypt where monarchs are described as being "the image" or "the likeness" of a god -- even gods of non-human form. It asserts a dominance and a mastery, a setting up above over the rest of creation, feeding straight into the next verse. "While he is not divine, his very existence bears withness to the activity of God in the world. This awareness inevitably entails an awesome responsibility and imposes a code of living that conforms with the consciousness of that fact." The difference in Genesis is that it is mankind that is being described as being the image of God, rather than a monarch.
Similarly in the commentary by Plaut (2005) the words emphasise "the Torah's abiding wonder over our special status in Creation, over our unique intellectual capacity, which bears the imprint of the Creator. This likeness also describes our moral potential. Our nature is radically different from God's, but we are capable of approaching God's actions: divine love, divine mercy, divine justice. Our likeness to the Divine has a third and most important meaning. It stresses the essential holiness, and, by implication, the dignity of all humanity, without distinction."
It's also worth noting that the early chapters of Genesis, and Genesis 1 in particular, are often now argued to be late compositions, dating specifically from the Exilic period -- a period in which the Israelite conception of God had become much more universalist, less local; and more abstract, less corporeal. This would mitigate against Cooper's thesis of a strong Canaanite inheritance in the text.
Finally I think we misrepresent Cooper in the previously current text. He doesn't say that "Genesis 1:26-27 says that the elohim were male and female", rather he says that he is presenting this as an alternative interpretation, at variance with the traditional translation. I don't have a problem with us presenting this as Cooper's suggestion, together if you like with his further suggestion that the model could "more likely" then be "Yahweh and his goddess companion", rather the whole pantheon. But it should not be presented as a consensus fact; indeed, per WP:DUE, it should not be given more prominence than it has been received with in secondary and tertiary overviews. Jheald (talk) 22:31, 19 July 2019 (UTC)
Ok, I have performed the change. Coogan does say that Asherah could mean (i) Yahweh's wife or (ii) Yahweh's ritual pole, but that all these available mainstream interpretations are equally heretical to the theological orthodoxy. Tgeorgescu (talk) 02:54, 20 July 2019 (UTC)
I still think the "hint" is WP:UNDUE - the section is titled 'In the Hebrew and Christian Bible'. Why does this belong in this article and this section, which is not about the history of religion? Melcous (talk) 08:04, 20 July 2019 (UTC)
Why do you think that God=god+goddess wouldn't be germane to this article? Tgeorgescu (talk) 08:32, 22 July 2019 (UTC)
I didn't make any comment about what I do and don't think is germane to the article as a whole. The section under discussion is about the Hebrew and Christian Bible (text), and the current inclusion is one scholar's view on what his interpretation of a word in that text "hints" at about the practice of religion in a particular era. That seems like a stretch to include in this particular section, whether or not it could or should be included anywhere else. Melcous (talk) 02:30, 23 July 2019 (UTC)
Would you suggest another section? Tgeorgescu (talk) 20:23, 24 July 2019 (UTC)

References

References

  1. Moore & Kelle 2011, p. 449. sfn error: no target: CITEREFMooreKelle2011 (help)
  2. ^ Albertz 1994a, p. 61. sfn error: no target: CITEREFAlbertz1994a (help)
  3. Ackerman 2003, p. 395. sfn error: no target: CITEREFAckerman2003 (help)
  4. Smith 2002, p. 47. sfn error: no target: CITEREFSmith2002 (help)
  5. Betz 2000, p. 917. sfn error: no target: CITEREFBetz2000 (help)
  6. Leeming, David (2005). The Oxford Companion to World Mythology. New York: Oxford University Press. p. 118. ISBN 978-0-19-515669-0. LCCN 2005014216. OCLC 60492027.

Gender of God or gods

I made an edit here for the lead to begin:

The gender of God, or of gods, can be viewed as a literal or as an allegorical aspect of a deity or of deities.

This was on the basis that the lead continues:

In polytheistic religions, the gods are more likely to have literal sexual genders which would enable them to interact with each other, and even with humans, in a sexual way.

And that a whole section is dedicated to: Gender_of_God#Hinduism within which there are many gods.

The edit was reverted by Jheald on the claim that "this article is specifically about monotheistic conceptions of God" which is not the case in regard to Hinduism. Is there a route to clarification?

GregKaye 13:06, 26 August 2015 (UTC)

in Islam - Allah Gender

Dear Editors this part is totally incorrect , God (Allah) is genderless and the reference to Him as He, is just the nature of Arabic, we refer to the moon as He and the sun as She, etc. the pronoun "Hiya" is not mentioned in Sura Ikhlas. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Abu aamir (talkcontribs) 10:52, 2 November 2020 (UTC)

It’s god a woman or man

Women 2600:8803:C203:400:2D55:40C5:97C2:7E34 (talk) 00:01, 5 March 2022 (UTC)

Grammar

Gender of God is 2401:4900:3B20:C612:EA08:3DA2:8157:1657 (talk) 15:39, 23 September 2022 (UTC)

Yes, the gender is generally referred to in the singular in the article. —C.Fred (talk) 16:36, 23 September 2022 (UTC)

Wiki Education assignment: Psychology of Gender

This article was the subject of a Wiki Education Foundation-supported course assignment, between 8 January 2024 and 28 April 2024. Further details are available on the course page. Student editor(s): Marsbell (article contribs).

— Assignment last updated by Zisha68 (talk) 02:33, 29 April 2024 (UTC)

Gender of God

About the gender of God. I was looking at something else on the internet and I came across this topic that whoever is in charge of Misplaced Pages is wrong! God is not a female he was never a mother! Deuteronomy 32:18 says of the Rock who begot you, you are unmindful and have forgotten the God who fathered you. That's what Deuteronomy 32:18 says! It does not say he is as a mother in that verse according to the words of Misplaced Pages! I have studied the Bible since 2006 and I continue to study it twice daily, every day and I have been a Christian for 18 years and I attend my church on a regular basis, but God was never a mother he is always a father, a male not a female! Just thought I clear that up for everybody! So do not mistaken God as a female or as a mother he is all three Trinities of the person within him; in other words he is God the Father, he is Jesus Christ as Son, and is the Holy Spirit all in one person! But he was never a mother or even acted as a mother! He is all male through and through! 73.177.183.196 (talk) 14:56, 27 April 2024 (UTC)

Being a Christian and studying the Bible does not give you special editing rights. Unless you read the Bible in Koine Greek, Hebrew, Latin, Coptic, Syriac and know your Aramaic, you're not in the same league with the Bible professors we WP:CITE in this article. tgeorgescu (talk) 16:55, 27 April 2024 (UTC)
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