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::Some people believe that there ''are'' universal human rights, which is why various governments and organizations like the United Nations publish papers, make laws, and enumerate lists detailing them. As to parents having the right to choose what information to provide, what happens when this comes up against the child's right to have information? Some parents believe they have the right to physically harm their children; others believe that the child's right to safety and security overrides this. - ] <sup>]</sup> 17:58, 24 December 2006 (UTC) | ::Some people believe that there ''are'' universal human rights, which is why various governments and organizations like the United Nations publish papers, make laws, and enumerate lists detailing them. As to parents having the right to choose what information to provide, what happens when this comes up against the child's right to have information? Some parents believe they have the right to physically harm their children; others believe that the child's right to safety and security overrides this. - ] <sup>]</sup> 17:58, 24 December 2006 (UTC) | ||
Depends on how each individual reacts to the knowledge. The american system of democracy is not the solution or panacea for this. Excessive dependence on science only eradicates the spiritual side of a human being. 15:49, 25 December 2006 (UTC)~ | |||
== Asian or Aboriginal? == | == Asian or Aboriginal? == |
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December 19
Correct use of the term "Band" (as in Rock Band) and minimum number of members?
On the article for Virtual band it states that virtual band refers to "any group whose members are not flesh-and-blood musicians, but animated characters." The article also mentions Crazy Frog (the CGI character) several times as an example and includes an image of him.
I added a comment to the talk page suggesting that Crazy Frog shouldn't be included in the article because he's not a "virtual group", but a "virtual soloist", because unlike a band or group Crazy Frog only consists of himself (sorry if this is sounding silly). An editor replied and from what I can gather the reason for the Frog being called a band is because there's another CGI character in the backround of the promo videos (although it's Frog who is "singing"), and also because sometimes a DJ might be referred to as a band (although in my experience that's usually done in error due to many DJs being fairly anonymous).
Anyway, I'd like to know, am I so out of touch with youth culture that music terminology has changed without me knowing it? Or is this a cultural thing? I'm in the UK and we definitely don't refer to Crazy Frog as a band or a grop here. When I added the comment to the talk page I just assumed I was stating a plain fact, but now I'm wondering. 172.188.153.235 03:08, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I think most people would agree that a "band", whether real or virtual, consists of more than one person (with the exception of a one-man band of course :) ! ) The more inclusive words "artist" and "act" are commonly used in the music business to refer to solo performers, DJs, and bands (regardless of whether they could be considered "artistic" or not). I think Crazy Frog is in the virtual band article mainly because there is currently no virtual artist, virtual act, virtual soloist, or virtual entertainer article. --Lph 13:59, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
I consider band to have at least four (4) members. My reasoning: Keane has three members, I don't consider them a band. I don't know why -- I just don't. Travis and Coldplay have four members, I do consider them to be bands.
Also, you get a group like Tom Petty and the Heartbreakers. The core of the group is really just Tom Petty and Mike Campbell -- so I don't consider them to be a band either. Vranak 16:46, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- That's a weird rule. So The White Stripes aren't a band? zafiroblue05 | Talk 19:12, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, I don't think it is so much a rule as one person's preference. Band (music) just says "a company of musicians, or musical ensemble," and musical ensemble refers to "two or more" musicians. So They Might Be Giants? Still a band. (See also WP:HORSE.) - Eron 01:00, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Song Lyrics... "Booty booty"
I went to a Christmas party the other night and heard lots of interesting music. One of the songs -- that my friends are all calling "the booty song" I've not been able to find. The song is very rhythmic with lines like:
Big booty Little booty *something* booty *smoething* booty .. .. Booty booty booty booty booty...
I've Googled this and still can find anything. Any clues as to the artist of the name of the song? Any help would be appreciated! —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 70.145.200.110 (talk) 04:19, 19 December 2006 (UTC).
- Maybe by Kendall or L-Macc, but probably by Bubba Sparxxx called 'Ms. New Booty'. Wolfgangus 05:27, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I don't think so, at least as concerns Bubba Sparxxx. The lyrics were basically, "Booty booty, big booty, little booty, something booty," over and over again.. There weren't many words other than "booty" preceded by some other descriptive word. The singer had a rough, gravelly voice, I think. --70.145.200.110 07:02, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Alexander's quip?
Alexander the Great is credited with saying "Ου κλεπτω την νικην" — so what the heck does that mean? Big Blue Marble 06:00, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Should ask on Language Reference Desk. The most basic literal translation is "I don't steal the victory". Not sure about any double meanings... AnonMoos 07:15, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- It isn't a quip, merely a remark easily interpreted as youthful arrogance but understood by Arrian as displaying maturity and intelligence. Search for steal on these pages , . meltBanana
Books of condolence
These days, whenever someone in the public eye passes away, one of the first responses is to open a book of condolence (the article is just a stub). My impression is that this phenomenon was pretty rare before the death of Princess Diana. Am I right? --Richardrj 06:22, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm pretty sure these have always been present at every funeral I've been to. It's sort of like a guest book. --Nelson Ricardo 07:01, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- The practice of placing a Book of Condolence at a foreign embassy or office is pretty old. The idea is that those, in far flung places, who are unable to attend and offer their respects in person can sign the book. The book is then transported to the family, or in some cases, an archive run by the state (or organization).
- Another thing that's becoming popular is the minute's silence (in the UK at least). It's all part of the grief culture. --Auximines 09:33, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- All of my experiences in relation to books of condolence and minutes of silence have been from the UK - which seems to do these things more often as we head onwards into the future. The first one I remember ever signing was for the 9/11 attacks, the town hall had a book people could sign. Now I was in the US in the years previous, and this was never usual at any funeral I had ever attended nor was it in relation to any event except for gradutaing school (both grade and high school) where in addition to ceremonies we had books for our friends to sign - but we each had our own book, which we were to keep as a momento and rememberance of childhood friends. Robovski 05:29, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm pretty sure there was a book of condolence at my father's funeral, which was in the U.S. in 1999 (post-Diana but pre-9/11). —Angr 21:49, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- All of my experiences in relation to books of condolence and minutes of silence have been from the UK - which seems to do these things more often as we head onwards into the future. The first one I remember ever signing was for the 9/11 attacks, the town hall had a book people could sign. Now I was in the US in the years previous, and this was never usual at any funeral I had ever attended nor was it in relation to any event except for gradutaing school (both grade and high school) where in addition to ceremonies we had books for our friends to sign - but we each had our own book, which we were to keep as a momento and rememberance of childhood friends. Robovski 05:29, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Another thing that's becoming popular is the minute's silence (in the UK at least). It's all part of the grief culture. --Auximines 09:33, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- The practice of placing a Book of Condolence at a foreign embassy or office is pretty old. The idea is that those, in far flung places, who are unable to attend and offer their respects in person can sign the book. The book is then transported to the family, or in some cases, an archive run by the state (or organization).
Fleetwod Mac - Information on the album " Tusk"
Hi,
When the album 'Tusk' was initially released in 1979 it was a two record set; on obtaining the 2CD set of this album recently, it had what I believe to be all the original songs on one disc and on the second disc, a collection of demos, roughs and outtakes ( I can thoroughly recommend this set )
I Googled 'Fleetwood Mac', visited the official web site and asked this same questions, unfortunately this site was unable to provide an answer to said questions which are as follows
- Are all the original songs from the double album of 1979 on this CD - List all the titles of the songs as released on this album in order / per side - eg. Side One - Track One Track Two Track Three
Side Two - Track One etc.
If this question can not be answered by your organisation, could you advise me as to whom one should contact in order to do so; it's my opinion that an avid collector of Fleetwood Mac would have this information especially if said collection has original vinyl recordings but I do not have the knowledge of how to contact such a collector.
Thanking you for all of your assistance in this matter.
Seasons Greetings
Regards, Paul —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 60.226.217.13 (talk) 06:25, 19 December 2006 (UTC).
- According to this Google search, the track listing for the double vinyl LP is as follows:
Side 1: 1. Over And Over 2. Ledge 3. Think About Me 4. Save Me A Place 5. Sara Side 2: 1. What Makes You Think You're The One 2. Storms 3. That's All For Everyone 4. Not That Funny 5. Sisters Of The Moon Side 3: 1. Angel 2. That's Enough For Me 3. Brown Eyes 4. Never Make Me Cry 5. I Know I'm Not Wrong Side 4: 1. Honey Hi 2. Beautiful Child 3. Walk A Thin Line 4. Tusk 5. Never Forget
Happy memorial services
Another trend in marking people's passing is the happy memorial service. We often hear that memorial services are intended as a "celebration of X's life", rather than an occasion to mourn their death. Again, this seems to me to be a recent trend. Any views? --Richardrj 06:27, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I believe these usually occur at the request of the deceased, rather than being something the next-of-kin come up with. --Nelson Ricardo 06:59, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- An Irish wake seems to me to be as much of a celebration as a mourning. StuRat 14:01, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- For another tradition, see the page on the New Orleans jazz funeral. -- Deborahjay 20:00, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
It's been common for many decades, and probably longer, for dead emininent Britons to have a funeral, and some weeks later later a memorial service in which their life is celebrated. Maybe the two events have been combined these days for less eminent persons. JackofOz 00:58, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Financial Models
What are Financial Models? How do Financial Models work? --Foundby 06:58, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Sympathy for Mr. Vengeance (movie) symbolism
Template:Spoiler At the end of the above named movie (I warned you - so please don't read this if you haven't seen it - it'd ruin a great movie for you), the main character, whose name I forget, is stabbed several times. There is a point where he looks down at his hands and you see both hands in the screen. On one hand is the cut he got at the beginning trying to disarm someone who cut himself because he was fired by forgotten-named main character. On the other, the blood from the stabbing has pooled into an almost mirror image of this wound. I was wondering what the director could have meant by that. The first thing that comes to mind is that possibly the director was connecting the trauma and destruction of this whole circle of violence and revenge to the monetary system that put the various characters in the positions they found themselves and led that man to cut himself. Does anybody think that's a viable conclusion to draw? - that the director is critiquing the class divisions inherent in capitalism? Might this too be why he surprises the viewer at the end by showing that the almost comical anarchist/anti-capitalist girlfriend wasn't lying at all about the numbers of people behind her cause? I'm just hoping someone could offer his/her two cents to the interpretation of those scenes in the movie as well as the message of the movie itself, because I feel I must have missed something. Fabulous movie. For those of you who haven't seen it and were curious enough to keep reading (despite warnings), you should really rent it. Fantastic. Thanks for any input, if it comes. Sashafklein 07:19, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- It's been a while since I've seen the movie, and to be honest I don't directly recall the blood pooling from one hand into a mirror image on the other. I think you should think about the possibility that the entire last scene was not necessarily real, and possibly a hallucination. Compare to another scene (that I can only barely remember) when the guy hugs the girl who died in the water, even though he is clearly hallucinating her... And then there is water on the floor when the next guy comes in, if I remember correctly, insinuating that his hallucination has gone an extra step: he's deliberately put water on the floor in order make it more real. (Either that, or the girl literally comes back as a ghost, which implies that the killers at the end are real only in a supernatural way.) When you say that the girlfriend is "almost comical," I think you should take it a step farther - her anti-capitalist actions (passing out the fliers and such) are absolutely comical, and it is almost ridiculous that the killers would appear at the end. Scratch that - it is ridiculous. Did you laugh when they appeared? I think I did.
- Anyways, take of that what you will. In short, I think it's a stretch to say that from the image of blood on his hands the director is critiquing class divisions - surely, that element is there from earlier in the movie (the whole kidnapping/ransom thing), but just as much he is satirizing radical opposition to such class divisions. zafiroblue05 | Talk 18:54, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
I couldn't laugh at the end because I was too shocked by the terrific bloodiness of the scene where the guy's achilles tendons are sliced open and start leaking underwater. God. Somehow the blood in this movie was just so much more bloody. Sashafklein 05:19, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Man. I just saw Oldboy. The ending was even weirder. Sashafklein 08:01, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Indeed. Possibly the most horrific scene in all three of the movies is in the last third of Sympathy for Lady Vengeance, though the rest of the movie isn't up to the standard of the first two. zafiroblue05 | Talk 18:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
I see that tonight. These movies are pretty great. Sashafklein 19:30, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Yeah. That last third was pretty great. Not that bloody though. And a lot of weirdness. The two final cake-eating scenes are just bizarre. Sashafklein 05:50, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
New Title Sequences in Japanese Anime?
Moved from Language 惑乱 分からん 09:48, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Why do Japanese animated shows change their front and end credit sequences so often? Every season or so, it seems that a newly animated title sequence - with new music - is commissioned. I assume that these new sequences must require a significant investment, so I assume there's a logical business-related reason behind the change, as opposed to simple boredom. Does anyone know anything about this? Thank you.
(In addition: I understand that this might not be the best forum for a question regarding foreign television standards. However, I assume that this is the most likely place monitored by Japanese speakers, who I presume might know more about Japanese culture. Moderators, please feel free to move this thread to another part of the reference desk, if you think it would be more appropriate elsewhere.) --Brasswatchman 06:35, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I can think of a few reasons:
- Language changes: If it's dubbed into a new language, the credits will need to be changed to reflect that dubbing, and also to list the remaining credits in the new language. StuRat 13:53, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Distribution changes: If a new distribution occurs, possibly under new laws and to new countries, there may be additional legal requirements for info to be included in the credits. The name of the new distribution company may also need to be included, although this typically just seems to be appended at the end. StuRat 13:53, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Legal challenges: If some people or companies had their presence and prominence in the credits specified in their contracts, and those contract requirements were not honored, they are entitled to require that the credits be changed to comply with the contract. StuRat 13:53, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- On the other hand, this doesn't seem to be what Brasswatchman refers to. It would likely be easy to just change the layers of text in the credits and replace it with new names. I could guess that it's a marketing method to renew interest in the series. Include new scenes from special moments (with cool FX/ better animation) in the new season, etc... 惑乱 分からん 14:02, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Language concerns are definitely not considered when making anime as they are all intended for local market. (Exceptions are very rare I think) Marketing is probably principal. Also as this has become common for anime to change OP/ED every trimester (at a rate of 1 episode per week thats 12-13 episodes) now its probably more of a custom and something that is expected by the viewers. Would be interesting to research when this trend started... Shinhan 16:57, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Would be interesting to research when this trend started... - That's what I was hoping someone knew, Shinhan. Does anyone know anything more about this? Or know of someone in Japan - an anime researcher or historian - who might have researched this? Thank you - all of you - for your help. --Brasswatchman 01:19, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- I don't know the answer, but it's not limited to Anime - Stargate Atlantis went through three opening credits in its first two years (the music for the 1st and 3rd was identical, the 2nd was a truncated version of this, all 3 had different graphics). Commander in Chief also changed music and graphics half way through its only season, presumably in an effort to reinvigorate it. Generally I would imagine it's to keep it looking new and updated. --Mnemeson 22:18, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- That's not quite what I'm talking about. With most American shows, while I'm sure there are revisions - as with Atlantis - I'm betting that the outlines more or less remained to same, right? They might have changed the graphics, but the theme music remained the same. As for Commander in Chief, as I remember, that show was desperately looking for an audience, right? With animes, a new title sequence is created - from scratch - with music every fifteen episodes or so (though there are exceptions). I don't think American television really has an equivalent, and I'm curious to know why and how the Japanese television industry use this strategy. --Brasswatchman 21:10, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- There are many American shows which have completely new title sequences with each season. A couple of examples are The Cosby Show and Everybody Loves Raymond. On Raymond, for example, we had the following opening credits (not in any order, and I may have missed some):
- Conveyor belt
- Flying
- Assembling playhouse
- Hiding from the relatives
- Football game
- StuRat 17:23, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- There are many American shows which have completely new title sequences with each season. A couple of examples are The Cosby Show and Everybody Loves Raymond. On Raymond, for example, we had the following opening credits (not in any order, and I may have missed some):
- I think it may also stem from giving more identity to each season. Take for example Detective Conan, or ] as you americans call it :D - it has 11 seasons and 19 different openings. So if you watch the series on syndication, where it and others are often aired non-chronologically, you can see from which season the part you are watching is from the intro. Also when there are radical plot changes the intro may change to to enhance and show the change. Like in Enterprise there are 2 episodes that are settled in a mirror universe, and the intro changes accordingly. Aetherfukz 23:16, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
Looking for British Comedy's name
I'm trying to find the name of a British TV comedy series. Unfortunately I don't know much about it apart from that it was a sitcom and main characters were an elderly lady (perhaps in her 60s) and her son. The other occasional characters were the lady's other son and his wife. Does anyone have any clue? Mahanchian 14:14, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Your description sounds like it could be Mother and Son, an Australian show - although perusal of that article shows it was remade in the UK as Keeping Mum. Could that be it? Natgoo 18:24, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Mahanchian, this sounds a little like Sorry!, a situation comedy starring Ronnie Corbett. The only difference is that Timothy Lumsden, the character played by Corbett, had a married sister, rather than a brother. Clio the Muse 20:18, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Natgoo and Clio, thanks for your responses. I checked these comedies but the one I'm looking for is non of these. Thanks again. Mahanchian 22:37, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Another possibility is the series That's My Boy, which ran from 1981 to 1986 and starred Mollie Sugden as an elderly lady and Christopher Blake as her son. --Roisterer 02:04, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Names of different countrymen
Hi, Liyaquath
By what name people of different country called.
Example : People who reside in India are called Indians —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 202.65.155.103 (talk) 16:32, 19 December 2006 (UTC).
- There are what -- a good 250 countries in the world? I daresay asking for a complete list is a bit ambitious! Vranak 16:42, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Misplaced Pages is an ambitious website. Have a look at the list of demonyms here (on the right): List_of_adjectival_forms_of_placenames#Nations. Skarioffszky 17:17, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- (I had to do a double take - this is my first encounter with the word demonym, and my initial impression was that it had to do with demonology :-o -- Deborahjay 20:04, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Misplaced Pages is an ambitious website. Have a look at the list of demonyms here (on the right): List_of_adjectival_forms_of_placenames#Nations. Skarioffszky 17:17, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- That list doesn't list things like Englishman/Englishwoman and Frenchman/Frenchwoman; what would these be called? --Spoon! 22:05, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Just that. Englishman/woman and Frenchman/woman. JackofOz 00:54, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Economic value of the United States
What is the total economic value of the United States, described as a simple balance sheet?
(December 19, 2006 js) VAv 17:36, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Unlike a company, a country's "value" cannot be expressed on a balance sheet. Further, any attempt to run a country as if it were a business is foolhardy, as I hope Ross Perot has learned by now. Countries simply aren't "for-profit" organizations. Loomis 21:51, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Another good example comes to mind: In the late '70s, "New York City" was either at or on the verge of bankruptcy. Its municipal "liabilities" basically exceeded it's "assets". But does that mean to say that NYC was absolutey worthless at that time? Loomis 22:05, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Colin Quinn is dead?
The Misplaced Pages entry for comedian Colin Quinn says that he died yesterday, December 18. Is this true, or someone's idea of a joke? Where is more information? 66.213.33.2 17:42, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Looks like vandalism or a joke to me. Thanks for the heads up; I've reverted it. --Lph 18:34, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Level of morality, etc. in gold rush mining towns?
What was the level of morality in 19th century gold rush mining towns, and what types of people lived there? DebateKid 18:08, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- As far as a series can be a depiction of actual events have a look at Deadwood (TV series) (3 seasons). It definitely has a realistic feel to it and is an interesting depiction of justice in a lawless gold rush town. Keria 19:59, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- No offense Keria, but I think a more reliable source might be the information in the Klondike gold rush article, and some of the books and memoirs listed therein. Anchoress 16:24, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Concorde and B747
Was there ever any competition ("a race for aviation supremacy") between Concorde (speed) and the Boeing 747 (passenger capacity)?
Many Thanks,
/C --Chachu207 ::: Talk to me 18:20, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, any different makers of planes are competing against each other to sell more airplanes by producing ones with characteristics that airlines will want. So the two were competing in that sense, but I don't think this can be exactly characterized as a "race for supremacy". Rather, Boeing opted not to try to compete for speed, because they felt it was better to compete for capacity. (Boeing did begin work on a supersonic plane as well, as well, but dropped the project.) And conversely for the governments backing the Concorde. --Anonymous, December 20, 05:13 (UTC).
presumably concorde was only an option for wealthier people or those who wanted to fly on it so much they saved up a lot? --Alex.dsch 19:15, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- First, at the time when the Concorde development started, air travel generally was still somewhat like that. The idea that airlines might compete on price didn't really get going until the 1970s (do we have an article on this?); and then at the same time there was the oil crisis that caused fuel prices to jump and made the Concorde in particular a very expensive plane to operate. Combine all these issues with legal issues about where the plane could fly, and Concorde ended up as a survival of the old luxury-only air travel market. --Anonymous, December 20, 05:13 (UTC).
'As I was going to St Ives....'
I've read the page about this riddle/rhyme, and see it featured in a die hard film, but can anyone tell me any other films/books it featured in. I have some vague memory of it in something else (maybe not even a book or film) and it's bugging me! Thanks. --Alex.dsch 19:15, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Do you mean the place name or the nursery rhyme itself? If you simply mean the name, what springs to mind is St Ives, an unfinished novel by Robert Louis Stevenson. There was also a movie made, I believe, based on this book. Clio the Muse 20:01, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- As I Was Going to St Ives has everything you want to know. Hipocrite - «Talk» 20:02, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Not really; I already checked it and it only mentions Die Hard. I was asking if anyone knew of its appearance in any other films or books. And i mean the rhyme itself.
- It was in sesame street, with a purple kermit! perhaps this is where you remember it from. meltBanana 22:11, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Competitive advantage due to prejudice
Is there a name for financial advantages that we obtain due to the prejudices of others? (Not considering if we hold this view too). Like in the hypothetical case that a racist buys from our company because we are Caucasian (although we are not racists). Or in the hypothetical case that we have grey hair and are perceived as more intelligent. Mr.K. 21:07, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- You may wish to review Economic rent. Hipocrite - «Talk» 21:29, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- There are approximation to the idea in this article, but not exactly what I want. Mr.K. 21:46, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
Blockbusting is one way to profit from prejudice. StuRat 18:13, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Economists would consider racist attitudes a type of noise. JChap2007 04:27, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- See more in the language reference desk.
See white privilege and related concepts, e,g. male privilege.--Pharos 05:26, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Cost of Pokemon
In the TV show, how much do the pokemon cost? If I capture a Pokemon from the wild, train it, and sell it, how much could I sell it for? What if I make one myself?
I'm asking this because, for a school assignment, my group invented a crime in which a person stole a Pokemon that another person had made. The other members of my group made this crime sound serious, not like stealing a 90-cent chocolate bar. --Bowlhover 21:50, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- As far as I recall, people catch the Pokémon, then keep them or trade them for others, rather than simply buying them. Thus the value attached (which would not be expressed as money) would vary with how hard it was to obtain the Pokémon, or (to be cynical) how much merchandising could be made about it in the real world. —Daniel (‽) 22:17, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, you can trade Poker Chips for Pokémon at gaming corner. Porygon costs 9999 poker chips and Eevee costs 6666, and you can get 50 chips for 1000 credits (roughly equivalent in value to the Yen), so the Porygon would cost 200,000 Credits, or 1,694 US Dollars, while Eevee would cost 134,000 Credits, or 1,135 Dollars. Hope that helps. Laïka 14:37, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- In-game money would not be worth as much as real currency. --Proficient 04:27, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, a can of lemonade costs 100 credits, which, assuming a credit = yen, ammounts to $0.84, a pretty close approximation of the real world cost. For the most part, Pokéworld prices work quite as well if you just assume that they are yen. Laïka 11:45, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Trying to recall a couple of movies
There are a couple of movies from my childhood that are partially burned into my memory, but I have no clue what the movies are. Below are the two movies I can't remember, with the scenes that I do remember:
- This movie involved some kind of mass emigration in which the parents and a child become separated. Might've been in Europe during wartime. The movie was focused on the child. The child is in some kind of internment camp and befriends a black man. I distinctly remember a guard forcing the black man to lick mud from the guard's boot in front of the child. Later, maybe a few years, the child reunites with his parents. Someone suggested to me that it might be Empire of the Sun, but looking at Misplaced Pages's plot summary, it doesn't seem similar.
- The second movie involves two brothers who are apart by a few years in age. I think that they were runaways or possibly orphans. I recall a dramatic scene in which they somehow acquire a horse and both ride it freely. The film might've taken place in a hilly European area. That's all I can remember about it.
Any help in recognizing either film would be greatly appreciated! —Erik (talk • contrib) - 22:10, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- A wild guess on the second film is The Brothers Lionheart, although the description is too vague... 惑乱 分からん 22:42, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I looked it up, and I don't recall any fantasy elements. I think it was a pretty straightforward drama, nothing supernatural or fantastical about it. Was boring for me to watch as a kid, actually. But I'd like to see what bored me back then; maybe I'd enjoy it now. :) —Erik (talk • contrib) - 22:48, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- To seize this opportunity, I also want to ask about a movie. It is about a coup in a Latin American country. The film is older than 20 years. Some guys in the film work as male escort to gather money to attack the government. At the beginning their families get killed...Some idea?Mr.K. 22:55, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- I've personally been stuck trying to find these 2 old vampire movie that I watched as a child. I can usually remember enough to find a movie, but this as slipped me for a long time. The most I can remember of the first one is that it involves a father and son, and they move to a new town that inhabited by vampires. I remember them feeding on cows as a way of life, and then later kidnapping the boy to try and turn him and his father. The second one was about a man I believe was lost, and stumbled upon these two female vampires (not a porn), and they would drain enough of his blood every night so that he wouldn't have the strength to leave their castle. Anyone.. anyone.. Bueller? Much thanks ahead of time. Bignole 13:59, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Man, Bignole, steal my thunder, why dontcha? :) Is the second film a Dracula film? I remember that scene in Bram Stoker's Dracula where Keanu Reeves's character gets the treatment that you mentioned. —Erik (talk • contrib) - 15:55, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- That wasn't my intention, I noticed this place and didn't want to start a new thread since you already had some responses. I did try and find yours. It wasn't a Dracula film, I'm pretty sure there wasn't a "male" vampire in the film. The second is an older movie, before the 90s; my memory wants to tell me it had the feel of a film from the 70s. Bignole 15:59, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Note: the IMDb message boards are probably the best place to ask this sort of question. zafiroblue05 | Talk 18:45, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
new birth of freedom
how valid is it that the lives that were lost in the American civil war to insure a new birth of freedom were in vain because by 1880 the south had defeated the weak northern efforts in behalf of the freedmen and reenslaved the blacks. what facts make this true? what facts make it false? --Kittycat rox 23:35, 19 December 2006 (UTC)
- Your question rests on the assumption that the American Civil War was only about slavery - which it was not. (It also assumes that the failure of Reconstruction meant the effective re-enslavement of blacks; while it is undoubtedly true that their status remained inferior to that of whites for almost another 100 years, they still remained legally free.) I think you need to take a broader look at the reasons the War was fought, and what the end result was in all those areas. (This question also reminds of Zhou Enlai's response when he was asked to assess the impact of the French Revolution: "It is too soon to tell." - Eron 00:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
December 20
Polish-Soviet War 1939
Why didn't the allies declare war on the USSR when the red army invaded Poland? --Fatdudewhosproud 00:33, 20 December 2006 (UTC) —The preceding unsigned comment was added by Fatdudewhosproud (talk • contribs) 00:33, 20 December 2006 (UTC).
- It was largely a question of political and strategic realities. To go to war with Germany was one thing; to go to war with Germany and the Soviet Union quite another. By the time Stalin invaded eastern Poland on 17 September 1939, the British and French guarantee of Poland's territorial integrity was no longer valid, providing, I suppose, an excuse for inaction, if any such excuse were ever needed. It might have been very awkward for the western allies if Hitler and Stalin had acted at the same time; but the Russians justified their invasion by claiming that the Polish state had ceased to be a viable political entity, and that their action was intended to 'protect' Ukranians and Belarusians living in eastern Poland. On this whole question have a read over the page on the Soviet Invasion of Poland Clio the Muse 00:46, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- It would have been a pointless exercise, a hollow gesture. There wasn't much they could have done. There was no way to send troops (even if they had any to spare) to defend Poland. Clarityfiend 01:08, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Some do consider it a betrayal on the part of the allies. Not being able to send troops is one thing but turning your back and appeasement is another. For Your Freedom and Ours is an interesting account from that perspective. Vespine 23:56, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
The British expressed their views by being strongly pro-Finnish in the Soviet-Finnish war which soon folllowed... AnonMoos 01:21, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
What fallacy is this?
I was reading something and came across this line: "there is never any excess in virtue, inasmuch as it is no longer a virtue if it is in excess."
This really does not feel right but I can't put my finger on how, specifically, it is wrong. Is it just equivocation? (Where in one sense it's referring to some deed or another that is often defined as "virtuous," which can be done in excess, and in another sense it's referring to the concept of virtue, which inherently precludes excess). I'm running in circles here! --Clngre 01:19, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- It looks like sophistry to me! Clio the Muse 01:25, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
To me, this seems to just be a very complicated way of expressing a the simple idea that "there's no such thing as having too much of a virtue because having too much of something makes it no longer a virtue" (so like being too honest makes the honesty no longer a good/desired thing). Why did you think it was a fallacy to begin with? --`/aksha 01:36, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- "Those who say, there is never any excess in virtue, forasmuch as it is not virtue when it once becomes excess, only play upon words..."—Michel de Montaigne. EricR 01:37, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- It just seems so fitting-and ironic-that Montaigne, a Frenchman, penned this observation, when we consider that it was France that proved there was indeed excess in virtue Clio the Muse 01:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- It doesn't seem like a fallacy to me, it just seems out of date. I think that sentiment would have been much more understandable in a more religious era, when overdoing a virtue would have been looked upon as prideful or self-righteous. For instance, in our world we might look at refusing sweets as a virtue, and refusing more sweets would make someone more virtuous. But in a more religious context, not overdoing sweets would be a virtue, but refusing your mother's sweets would be sanctimonious and dishonourable. Anchoress 01:58, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Exactly. Whenever an antique quotation strikes you as silly, it's best to consider what the societal fabric was like at the time. Most quotes simply don't work well in the 21st century, but it is not the fault of their authors.
- Also, Montaigne was the fellow who opined 'What do I know?' -- which endears him to me even if he did write a few suspect quips.Vranak 03:18, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Actually now that I think of it, it fits with some Eastern philosophies too; I've heard from a Buddhist meditation teacher and a Yoga teacher that even if you're a vegetarian, you should always eat what's put in front of you when you're a guest at someone's house, because refusing hospitality generates more karma than eating meat does. Anchoress 02:20, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
aksha, I'm not really sure if it is a fallacy or not, it just really "feels" wrong, it feels like, as Montaigne said (that's where I read it), a play on words that isn't very logical but asserts something through some kind of semantic backdoor. I don't know, it just doesn't seem right.
The assertion is that 'virtue cannot be done in excess,' is it not? In one sense (there are things that we call virtuous that can be done in excess (giving to charity is virtuous, but one can give too much and starve themselves)) it seems very possible that "virtue could be done in excess," but in another sense (by definition something being virtuous, if it indeed is virtuous, means it couldn't be "in excess") it isn't possible. It seems to me like just an apparent, but not real, contradiction in theory and practice. In theory (the definition of virtue) it can't be, but in practice (acts of virtue) it can be. Both ideas are true in themselves, but with that sentence the speaker seems to also be kind of negating the first sense with the second, which doesn't seem right.
I really don't know and am just confused, there are too many layers to this.--Clngre 02:12, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Or could you just say that that first sense I proposed actually isn't true because the idea of virtue rightly applied to the act of charity already means that its done in the right proportions, and that it wouldn't be virtue in the first place, even if it was "giving to charity," if it was excessive? That would make sense, it seems. So the problem has been that I was acting like anything that anyone calls virtue is actually virtue, which isn't true, it could be misnamed. Right? --Clngre 02:16, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- But, then again, do we or need we really arbitrate if something is rightly or wrong used to know that it is used and refers to something? I could refer to a cat with the word "pig" but, on one level, I'd be right to refer to a pig as being a furry animal with paws and whiskers, would I not? Similarly, if simply "giving to charity" is what people call virtue, then, right or wrong, that's kind of what the word "virtue" comes to refer to and that can be done in excess, so "virtue" can be done in excess? Wait.... what?
- By this logic, though, anything can be said to be anything. We must hold ourselves to a common definition, right? That's the only practical and reasonable thing to do.
- I'm doing this to myself, aren't I? This is all actually very simple and clear and I'm just digging myself a fine hole, am I not? I should probably sleep on this. --Clngre 02:32, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Eureka! I've got it now! It's simply circular logic!--Clngre 02:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- But, then again, do we or need we really arbitrate if something is rightly or wrong used to know that it is used and refers to something? I could refer to a cat with the word "pig" but, on one level, I'd be right to refer to a pig as being a furry animal with paws and whiskers, would I not? Similarly, if simply "giving to charity" is what people call virtue, then, right or wrong, that's kind of what the word "virtue" comes to refer to and that can be done in excess, so "virtue" can be done in excess? Wait.... what?
I'd imagine that the writer was just trying to say that virtue/virtuous behaviour includes a level of restraint eg temperance or moderation.87.102.4.227 11:19, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
If I have correctly translated this into standard claims, it should look like,
- No Virtues are Virtues in excess.
- Therefore, All Virtues in excess are not Virtues.
Unless I am missing a claim, I don't think this would be a syllogism as it stands. I could rewrite the argument as such,
- No Virtue is a Virtue in excess
- Virtue A is a Virtue in excess.
- Therefore, Virtue A is not a Virute.
This is argueing a contradiction of definition, which appears to be most closely related to the statement quoted, and is logically valid. We could also construct a truth table. Virtue A is a Virtue if and only if Virtue A is not in excess.
- P = Virute A is a virute
- Q = Virute A is in excess
- P -> ~Q
- P | Q | ~Q | P -> ~Q
- T | T | F | T
- T | F | T | T
- F | T | F | T
- F | F | T | T
This like the previous would be true. Again, I may have misconstructed the above arguments, but it would seem that from these two perspectives, the statement is logically sound if the middle term is added, namely the "Virute A is" statement. Disregarding the eloquent language, it may in fact be valid. Without the middle term it is technically not an argument in the structure of a syllogism. I think that the truth table is more closely related to the statement, and that it was not originally intended to be a syllogism by it's author. I like the way the statement is written from an aesthetic point of view, and while I welcome anyone who can correct my logic here, I secretly hope that it is in fact logically valid. ~~Dmarney
ARGENTINA OPINION ON NORTH KOREA
What is Argentina's opinion on the current weapon problem in North korea? have they done anything about it? Thanks! —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 72.134.73.15 (talk) 02:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC).
- This might be a good start.--Clngre 02:50, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
thanks! anyone else?
- Since Argentina is not itself threatened by North Korea's weapons, it has little to gain by getting too deeply involved in this dispute. Marco polo 14:32, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Staten Island
Why is Staten Island in New York, when a glance at the map makes it look like it should be part of New Jersey? I found the original grant of New Jersey, which included "all that tract of land adjacent to New England, and lying and being to the westward of Long Island, and Manhitas Island and bounded on the east part by the main sea, and part by Hudson's river... ." That would seem to include Staten Island, wouldn't it? -- Mwalcoff 05:25, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- At the time of the release mentioned in the indenture (which itself is dated 24 June 1664), Staaten Eylant was part of the New Netherland colony of the Dutch Republic. Although Charles II had resolved (as of March of 1664) to annex New Netherland, hostilities had not yet started. At the Treaty of Breda, when the New Netherland colony was ceded to England, most of it (including Staten Island) went to the the new Province of New York, and the rest to New Jersey. Why it was not granted then to New Jersey I don't know, but one can speculate that a possible argument may have been the existing close ties between the Dutch settlements Nieuw Dorp on Staten Island, Nieuw Amsterdam on Manhattan, and Breukelen on Long Island. Furthermore, James, Duke of York, the proprietor of the New York colony, was a powerful person and may have argued that his earlier release of course did not include property that was not his to give away.
Tenor clarinet?
I'm a clarinet player and ashamed I don't know this =/. The standard B-flat clarinet is considered a soprano clarinet, you have an E-flat alto clarinet, and a bass clarinet. Are there any types of clarinets that can be considered a tenor clarinet? Thanks! -Kevin 05:32, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- There's a Basset horn, which sounds down to the F a major sixth below the lowest note of the B-flat standard clarinet. (Richard Strauss used it in Elektra and Die Frau ohne Schatten). Other than that I can't think of anything in that range. Antandrus (talk) 05:35, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Another way to look at it is that the members of the family are misnamed, at least if we are strict about keeping bass and alto an octave apart, and tenor and soprano an octave apart. The members of the family are:
- E-flat clarinet (high) (length 19 inches) (really could be "soprano" member of the family)
- B-flat clarinet (standard) (length 26.25 inches) (really could be "alto" member of the family)
- E-flat alto clarinet (length 38 inches) (really could be "tenor" member of the family)
- B-flat bass clarinet (length 55 inches) (really could be "bass" member of the family) Antandrus (talk) 05:46, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Wow, that was amazingly fast. Thanks a bunch!-Kevin 06:12, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Aniara
Does any one know where I can get a recording of the opera Aniara by Karl-Birger Blomdahl? Thanks! S.dedalus 07:01, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Re. "Goodbye, Mr. Chips"
Hi, I am a Chinese, I am reading this book.
I can't figure out the sentence below:
Brookfield was playing Barnhurst, and one of the Barnhurst boys......
Please kindly tell me, what is Barnhurst, what kind of game it is. I tried to find it on internet but in vain.
Thank you in advance for your kindness. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 61.60.242.186 (talk) 08:04, 20 December 2006 (UTC).
Brookfield was one school team playing the other team, Barnhurst school. So Barnhurst is a school rather than a game. They were probably enjoying a game of rugby union, or maybe cricket --Steve (Slf67) 08:09, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Thanks a lot.
In my opinion, it could be any sport, or maybe a team not attatched to a school.martianlostinspace 17:13, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Yes, it might be intentionally vague, if the author felt that specifying a particular sport would make the story "less universal". StuRat 17:57, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Since the whole sentence is: "Brookfield was playing Barnhurst, and one of the Barnhurst boys, a chubby little fellow, made a brilliant century." I think we can say cricket. Rmhermen 21:28, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- It certainly is cricket, old boy. And I cannot imagine a story less 'universal', and more English, than Goodbye, Mr. Chips. Clio the Muse 00:31, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
One small additional point to help with your future reading. A word like 'Barnhurst', beginning with an upper case letter in mid-sentence, indicates a proper noun, used only for names, place-names and the like. A game, like rugby or cricket, would always be in the lower case, unless, of course, it is placed at the beginning of a sentence. Clio the Muse 02:45, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- However, some people, particularly in Britain, treat the names of games as proper names. Instead of bridge, they play Bridge. And commercial games normally have names that are trademarked and therefore capitalized. So the reading that Barnhurst is a game is actually quite possible, although wrong. --Anonymous, December 21, 2006, 08:44 (UTC).
- That is indeed a consideration. I was forgetting Monopoly and the like! In the context of the point in question, though, the reference to 'the Barhurst boys' would indicate that a place is meant. Clio the Muse 08:47, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Isn't Badminton always capitalized? User:Zoe|(talk) 16:53, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Reference
Hello, I have recently added some refereces to the article on Robert A. Pape. A message occurs: this article or section does not cite its references or sources. How do I make it right?
The message is there becuase of sections like this "Since 1999, he has taught at the University of Chicago, where he is now tenured. " - It means that someone thinks the fact that he is at the university of chicago needs a reference to prove it.
So it needs a link at this point in the text (maybe to university of chicago teaching staff) as a reference. If you think it is asking for citations for things that are common knowledge you should bring it up on the article talk page. When all instances of have gone you can remove the template labelled 'unreferenced' at the top of the page.
You might find Misplaced Pages:Citing sources useful as well as Misplaced Pages talk:Footnotes/Mixed citations and footnotes which shows you how to do it (look at the code using 'edit this page')87.102.4.227 11:30, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Film identification
Moved to WP:RD/P - 131.211.210.10 09:06, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Russian philosophers
Are there any (relatively well known) russian philosophers? Are there any russian philosophers whose works are not well known outside russia?? (excluding Albert Chernenko)87.102.4.227 14:37, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Sorry, ignore the first part - was looking in Lists of philosophers#Lists of philosophers by ethnicity, language, nationality, religion, or region: which doesn't have a link.87.102.4.227 15:07, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
There were quite a few political philosophers, like Lenin and Trotsky, dealing with things like the rights of man, until Stalin took control and made the Soviet Union into a brutal dictatorship. StuRat 17:41, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Someone who made quite an impact in the 80's (after his death in 1975) and is still read a lot in cultural studies is Mikhail Bakhtin, I can personally recommend "Rabelais and His World: carnival and grotesque". Whether you classify him as a cultural commentator or a philosopher is a whole (uninteresting?) debate. Keria 17:57, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Ah yes, thanks for that - unfortunately I haven't read Gargantua and Pantagruel yet, so this will have to wait. He seems more of a 'critic/analyst' than the type of philosopher I was looking for. Thanks anyway.87.102.4.227 19:56, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
The page on Russian philosophy has a fairly comprehensive list, though I admit most are probably little known outside Russia, and others, most notably Fydor Dostoyevsky and Lev Tolstoy, are better known for other intellectual pursuits. I think the best known, those with an national and an international reputation, would have to include Alexander Herzen and Mikhail Bakunin. Less well-known in the west, though he lived for many years outside Russia, is Ivan Ilyin, whose remains were returned to his native land last year for re-interment, along with the White general, Anton Denikin. Incidentally, on a point of information, the Soviet Union was a brutal dictatorship well before the days of Stalin, who only made a bad situation considerably worse. Stalin himself, it might be said, has every right to be included in the pantheon of Russian political philosophy, as his works, including Problems of Leninism and Dialectical and Historical Materialism, had a far greater impact than those of Leon Trotsky. Lenin's impact was in the field of political rather than pure philosophy. Materialism and Empirio-Criticism, his only book to tackle the subject head on, so to speak, is derivitive and polemical, not among the most persuasive of his works. Clio the Muse 23:58, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Thanks to you all, though you all seem to mention writers rather than real thinkers..! Thanks anyway.87.102.7.27 10:48, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Not that I'm sticking up for Lenin or Trotsky, but Stalin certainly took the idea of "brutal dictatorship" to levels unseen by his predecessors. Loomis 04:49, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm pretty sure Dostoyevsky counts as a "real thinker", by any reasonable standard. Anyone who writes a book that Nietzsche says was "written in blood" earns a whole heap of philosohpy cred, no? -GTBacchus 05:05, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Not that I'm sticking up for Lenin or Trotsky, but Stalin certainly took the idea of "brutal dictatorship" to levels unseen by his predecessors. Loomis 04:49, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Pro-Chinese American Communist Party 2006?
Are there any current (as of 2006) American Communist Parties that approve of the current regime in the People's Republic of China? All the Maoist parties I know of have denounced Deng Xiaoping's free market reforms and no longer consider China a communist nation. Are there any communist parties that approve of Deng Xiaoping Theory? The closest I;ve been able to find is the CPUSA. If anyone knows of any currently pro-Chinese parties outside the USA I'd be intrested in thoose as well. --Gary1234 16:24, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Which Azumanga Episode Am I Thinking Of?
In the anime series Azumanga Daioh, which episode features Chiyo's Dad speaking in English to a confused Osaka? (Please note that this is a serious question; I've been through my collection and I can't seem to remember which episode it is. Thanks!) --Ppk01 16:03, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
Right, no need to answer. Found it myself: Episode 24, Part 4 "Study Session". --Ppk01 20:06, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
December 21
Which ghost movie
Move to Misplaced Pages:Reference desk/Entertainment Nil Einne 11:55, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Christian Research Institute and WP:RS?
]
Specifically this is the article from their journal I want to use. ]. I'd love feedback on whether people think it meets WP:RS or not. Sethie 17:48, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- Not sure if this is the right place for this question. I'd suggest you ask on the talk page of the article in which you wish to use it or on the talk page of WP:RS. --Cody.Pope 22:33, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- I don't see why it couldn't be used; it seems to be fairly thoroughly researched (60+ footnotes in a 6-page document). It probably depends on how you use it. BenC7 01:11, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Schellenberg's use of Nostradamus in invasion of France 1940
Walter Schellenberg was a senior Nazi concerned with propaganda. In his autobiography, I think I remember him boasting how, by dropping leaflets containing falsified prophesies of Nostradamus, prior to the invasion of France, he contributed to the chaos in that country and helped the success of the Blitzkrieg. Is there any evidence for the use of Nostradamus please?
- Here's the quote:
Frolov, V.S. (April 1, 2006). "Encyclopedia of stratagems". Military Thought. looks independent, and may confirm that there was such a leaflet, if nothing else.EricR 19:46, 20 December 2006 (UTC)Another device which did great damage was a small and apparently innocuous pamphlet which was distributed in great numbers by our agents and also dropped from aircraft. Printed in French and described as being the prophecies of Nostradamus—many of whose prophecies were actually included—the pamphlet predicted terrifiying destruction from "flying fire machines," stressing all the time that southeastern France would be preserved from this horror. While preparing these brochures, I had never imagined that they would have such a tremendous effect. All the efforts of the civilian and military authorities to divert the great streams of refugees from attempting to reach southeastern France proved useless.Schellenberg, Walter (2000). The Labyrinth: Memoirs of Walter Schellenberg, Hitler's Chief of Counterintelligence. Translated by Louis Hagen. pp. p. 105. ISBN 0306809273.
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has extra text (help)- By the way, does anyone know what "the ancient prophecy of the Virgin" is referring to in the linked article? Is that a mistranslation of Nostradamus (Michel de Nostredame)?EricR 01:23, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Probably the third, and even more apocalyptic, secret of Our Lady of Fatima. meltBanana 03:03, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Nostradamus Speaks by Rolfe Boswell printed in 1941 mentions Nazi propaganda using Nostradamus. Here is a page about the prophecies during the Second World War but with the damning comment "if he is memoir is to be believed". Here is a review of another creative reading of the prophesies at the same time. meltBanana 20:25, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
I think it probably amounts to a truism that all those involved in intelligence work tend to exaggerate the impact of certain stategems. I have no idea if this leaflet actually existed; but, if it did, I seriously doubt that it had the impact Schellenberg suggests. Hundreds of thousands of frightened people fleeing from Germans advancing rapidly from the north would hardly pause to make sense of Nostradamus' cryptic prophecies. If they did, I think they may have taken a slightly different message: that the Germans intended a major attack on the south-west. All refugees were going south; whether more went south-east than south-west, I really cannot say. And why hords of people going in one direction would be less disruptive than going in another is yet another imponderable. The French authorities were anxious to keep all the main highways free for obvious reasons and with limited effect. Stuka dive bombers were quite enough. What need for Nostradamus? Clio the Muse 01:11, 21 December 2006 (UTC) Thank you so much for this prompt reply.
Greek Myth? Maybe.
There is a story (myth?) about an island in ancient Greece where soldiers or warriors, through mutual or universal agreement, could visit at any time, remove their armor, and be safe from attack. It was a safe haven for R & R. Is this true, a myth, and what is the island's name?NewKidontheBlock 19:44, 20 December 2006 (UTC)NewKidontheBlock
- Many places were protected by asylia (inviolability) to various degrees or at various times. The only references i've found stating the protection covered the entire island give Delos and Tenos, but there is no mention of soldiers in particular.EricR 02:02, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Very interesting, espcially the asylia concept. Never heard of that before. As for the islands, Delos had a stronger custom about no births or deaths on the island. But Tinos may be the one someone was referring to...though it does not seem to have had the same custom as Delos. Thanks for the references...it may be a modern myth made up by someone who was trying to make a point about people needing safe havens to have open discussions...a modern approach to the age-old issue of the guy at the top being isolated. By giving it a specific name place, it was a better reference than the general asylia (asylum?) definition. NewKidontheBlock
- Found some more info on Delos via Google Books:
EricR 18:34, 22 December 2006 (UTC)the sanctity of the temple and island rendered it's military visitors inviolable; so Romans, Macedonians, and the allies of Eumenes mingled freely in the temple, the religion of the place supplying them a truce (Livy 44.29.2:...). Rigsby, Kent J. (1996). Asylia: Territorial Inviolability in the Hellenistic World. pp. p. 52. ISBN 0520200985.
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has extra text (help)
Which Jackie Chan movie?
Relocated to Popular Culture Reference Desk. dpotter 00:25, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Song artist
Who sang the song "Carmelita" in 1946?
From what I have seen Carmilita is the name of the singer. Are you not sure it is the song you are looking for? Also used in a play. I can't realy be sure though. You should try several search
engines for varied resultes. Ich liebe Wiki 00:36, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
Irak oil industry before and after 2003
I would like to know the level of difference as to which oil companies operated principally in Irak before the 2003 war and which are currently operating and which of these in both groups are linked to USA/UK or France/Rusia? Thankyou for any information. --AlexSuricata 23:50, 20 December 2006 (UTC)
- After nationalization in 1972-73, there was basically just one oil company in Iraq, the Iraq National Oil Co. During the Iran-Iraq War (1980-88), I think there may have been a few deals done but perhaps not consummated. From 1990-2003, sanctions prevented any non-Iraq oil company from operating in Iraq, but many countries and companies (notably, none from the US or the UK) were working on deals and China, France, and Russia (or companies from there) had at least understandings by the time of the war in 2003. In 2003 sanctions were lifted, but also the occupying power (USA) declared pre-existing agreements null and void. There are many companies (both independents like ExxonMobil and Chevron, and national oil companies like those of China and Malaysia) working on deals to develop fields now. Go to this EIA web page and scroll down to "Status of Oil Development Deals with Foreign Companies" for more current info. Hope this helps, cheers Geologyguy 01:01, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
That´s perfect, thanks --AlexSuricata 02:53, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
name for a specific ethnic group
You know how in Canada and USA, they call Chinese, Japanese people "Asians" or "Orientals", Indian people "Desi".What do they call Iranians, Arabs, Turks and Afghanis, Arabs? or is it something else?
- 'They' do? I'm a white person from Western Canada, and I've heard the term 'Desi', but only online, never from the mouth of an actual person in my city. The people I know call people from Southeast Asia 'Asian' (if we don't know their actual country of origin), people from the Indian Subcontinent and environs 'South Asian' (with the same caveat), and people from the Middle East Middle Eastern. Anchoress 00:53, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm a Canadian, and I call Iranians, Arabs, Turks, and Afghanis, "Iranians", "Arabs", "Turks", and "Afghanis". - Eron 02:34, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
I'm American, and I've never even heard the term Desi. I'd have guessed that was a Cuban, after Desi Arnaz. If you're asking for insulting terms, I'm not sure we can give those here. StuRat 02:46, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- From The U.S., and never heard "Desi" except in the context of "Lucy." And we try to make a distinction between Iranians and Arabs. Edison 05:48, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- As a side note I thought it was Indians etc who use sometimes use the term 'desi' - assuming you were asking what 'white' people call them. (in the uk not canada).87.102.7.27 10:52, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- I am a white person from the eastern U.S. and I can confirm what everyone else has said: Most people have never heard of the term "desi". (I have, but only online, used by people of South Asian descent.) As for Iranians, Arabs, Turks, and Afghanis, people will refer to each group using those terms, or if they don't know the exact nationality, they might use "Middle Eastern." That said, I'm afraid that I have heard slang, generally used by people with a military background and/or far-right politics, referring to Arabs or Middle Easterners, somewhat interchangeably, as "ragheads". But that offensive term is not in wide use. Marco polo 14:44, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- In my part of the United States (the midwest, near Chicago), the nonspecific terms most frequently used are "Arab" and "Middle Eastern." Carom 20:16, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Tangier Ville Rail Station
I'm having trouble finding a detailed online street map of Tangier. Can anyone tell me what street the Tangier Ville station is on?
Thanks,
Adambrowne666 00:31, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- From memory, Gare Tangier Ville is a fairly new building, situated outside the main part of the city. I do not honestly know if it comes with a specific street name as such. Clio the Muse 00:47, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Google Maps doesn't give a street address either, but it appears to be close the marina. Surely the station should be signposted from most parts of town anyway? Laïka 10:59, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Thanks, both of you - that's helpful, Laika, that it's close to the marina - though this isn't for me to navigate the town, but research for a story I'm writing - I'm gonna thank the Misplaced Pages Humanities Help Desk when it's published. Adambrowne666 22:20, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- In fact, I've had closer look at the map; it seems to be little further inland than it appears, on the outskirts of the city. It's still not too far from the marina, but you have to cross a small river to reach it. It's not perfect, but ONCF, the Moroccan Railway Company, has posted a map of Tanger Ville station (the station is normally written without an "i"), which corresponds to roughly here on Google Maps. Laïka 16:32, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Did you know ? In Tang(i)er, every railway station and every train is painted blue. That's like that there. So spies and gurus paint themselves blue to avoid being recognized. -- DLL 18:37, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Thanks again, Laika, good link - interesting detail, too, Harvestman, about the blue-painted trains... does that mean even trains from other cities, from, say, Fez, get a quick paintjob while they're at Tanger Ville?Adambrowne666 23:37, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
My hand hurts!?!
In a counseling course I once took, the prof. mentioned refered several times to, when writing, people who press down really hard, grip tight, etc. However, the course being at 755am, I was conscious, but thats about it. So I googled it and I cant find any neurosis, disorder etc. refering to that being a symptom. So, anyone wanna find out?
Thanks!!!72.70.28.190 00:51, 21 December 2006 (UTC)moe.ron
I just realized that people who answer these questions are prolly on holiday. Since most I would ASSume are in college72.70.28.190 00:53, 21 December 2006 (UTC)moe.ron
- Can you clarify what you mean? BenC7 01:15, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Clarify huh? hmmm. Well he was talking about when writing with a pencil on paper. While writing, rather than keeping the hand loose, the writing was down bearing down on the paper. I guess just keeping the hand tense, gripping the pencil tightly, and again writing while pushing hard down on the pencil.72.70.28.190 02:15, 21 December 2006 (UTC)moe.ron
- Check out Writer's cramp. - Eron 02:32, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- The science reference desk may be more helpful, although no reference desk gives medical advice. However you might also want to check out Repetitive strain injury Nil Einne 11:47, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Thse are all things angry people will do. Maybe your prof. was talking about anger. What class was this? --Lambiam 23:56, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
FA Premier League
What team, if any, do most people from Ireland support in the FA Premier League. Pretty subjective and difficult to get a census I would imagine. But I was thinking there was a team that was supported more than another.
Lots of Irish people seem to support Liverpool - i suppose if you get the ferry over it's the nearest Premiership side. --194.176.105.40 09:24, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- There's also a lot of affinity for Manchester United in Northern Ireland. I think this predates the immortal George Best, but his contributions for club and country have probably helped this considerably. --Dweller 11:16, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
diagrams or maps of egyptian pyramids (inside showing chamber locations)
i an looking to find a picture of a diagram of what a egyptian pyramid should look inside with all it's chambers
- A very schematic diagram of the Great Pyramid and some inside photographs can be found at Ancient Egypt Online. A clearer diagram is at the pyramid pages of World Book. Note that other pyramids are much simpler. --Lambiam 06:54, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Checking surname for Sept or Clan affiliation
What is "Barnes"? I have seen GENUKI provide a guess and tried to scour internet atlases, but have found nothing apart from Barnes Castle in East Lothian. A last name would have to be older than the castle, which was built rather late. Burnett and Campbell both seem to claim Barnes, but I confess to be certain of nothing apart from the origin of this name. Please don't redirect me to some obscure genealogy engine. I'm sure there are Scots here with the knowledge. Thanks anyways. Rhode Islander 04:28, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Hi, Rhode Islander. I'm not sure I can be that much help to you, as family-names, I confess, are not really my area of expertise, but from what I can gather Barnes is not a Scottish surname at all, unless it is a corruption of Burns or Barron, the latter name connected with Clan Rose. Barnes itself seems to be of English origin, an occupational name for someone who worked, well, in barns. Names were, however, sometimes derived from location, which could suggest a connection with Barnes Castle. The other possibility is that it comes from the Old English beorn and Old Norse barn, meaning 'young warrior.' The third possibility is that it is an Anglicization of the Irish O'Berán, meaning spear. Tenuous Scottish and clan connection, though-sorry! On this particular point I think it only fair to warn you that, as a former Lord Lyon KIng of Arms pointed out, Scottish clans have a habit of 'stealing' septs in the same fashion as their ancestors once stole cattle and sheep! Clio the Muse 06:36, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Is all this clan business, reality in anachronistic form...or just artful fancy? Rhode Islander 06:53, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- I have no wish to spoil any illusions, or to upset anyone who takes this whole matter seriously, but you are right: it is an anachronism. The whole institution, quite frankly, has a far greater resonance in places firth of Scotland, particularly in North America, where the issue of 'roots' has acquired an almost religious intensity. Clans were once powerful political formations, though their structure and organisation was quite different from the popular romantic image. However, in the eighteenth century, especially after the failure of the last Jacobite Rebellion in 1746, they went into terminal decline. Clan societies were initially established in the Lowlands to allow migrants from the Highlands to preserve something of their old cultural identity. Now they tend to be about nostalgia, and that is never what it used to be. Clio the Muse 08:20, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Rock the Casbah
This is probably a strange question. Recently (I'd say within the last couple months), it's become very popular around here to use the phrase "Rock the Casbah" to describe any sort of sex. I know it comes from the Clash song, but was there some TV show or movie or something of the like that used it in the same way that led to its recent popularity?
- Yes, Bart used it on The Simpsons as a euphemism for sex. -- Mwalcoff 07:00, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- That's right, in Natural Born Kissers. Laïka 10:39, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Leeds Castle
It says that Leeds castle became a royal palace for king Edward 1 but it doesn't say when it was built. I'm hoping someone could tell me a site that says if it was built in between the time AD 500-1500. I'm also wondering Who built the castle?, How long the construction lasted?, and Who sponsored the building?
- Our article Leeds Castle states that it "dates back to 1119, though a manor house stood on the same site from the 9th century". This means it was built (or finished) in 1119. The earlier manor house was built AD 801–900. According to the Castle's web site, it was built by Robert de Crevecoeur, replacing the Saxon manor of Esledes . --Lambiam 07:12, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Thank you sooo much for your help. =)
One small fact that does not appear on the Misplaced Pages page-or the castle web site-is that it is thought to have derived its name from an original Anglo-Saxon manor belonging to one Led, Leed or Ledian, chief counsellor of Ethelbert IV, King of Kent. Clio the Muse 08:33, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Perhaps reflected in the name EsLedes. --Lambiam 23:58, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- The modern day castle looks nothing like it would have done in 1119. Henry VIII extensively worked on it. In the form it is today, it's much more a stately home than a true castle, with much of the fortification retained for aesthetics or removed/compromised for similar the same reason, or to enhance comfort. Leeds castle isn't really a castle anymore and it isn't in (or anywhere near) Leeds, although there is a small village called Leeds nearby. --Dweller 11:09, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- A book on castles in Great Britain distinguished between great houses and castles on the basis of whether they had a "Crenelation permit" or license from the crown. A fortified structure might be a threat to the government. No authorized crenelations for the purpose of fortification? Not a castle. Modern structures with crenelations might just have them as decorations. Edison 19:25, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Items found in public places
Not asking for legal advice but I'm considering legal issues here. What laws, if any, cover the situation when you find something in a public place which is unlikely to have been discarded (E.g. found on a set or along the path). Two kinds of cases especially interest me. What about if the item has no identifying marks or features? For example, a camera with no photos on it. And what about when the owner can clearly be identified. For example a wallet with ID. Welcome views from any country or jurisdiction, but please specify which one. I'm aware there are subsquent issues but I'm not interested in these. For example, using someone else's ID, credit card or whatever will come under fraud and related laws. Nil Einne 11:40, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- This article might help: Lost, mislaid, and abandoned property. --24.147.86.187 15:03, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Come on, you know we have an article on everthing: Finders keepers. Rmhermen 18:06, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Almost everything :-) S.dedalus 00:45, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Come on, you know we have an article on everthing: Finders keepers. Rmhermen 18:06, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
The Experience Machine
I have to write an essay about Nozick's Experience Machine, as he asks it in his book Anarchy, State, and Utopia.
Is it better to plug in or not to plug in?
- To plug in or not to plug in, that is the question. Whether 'tis nobler in the mind to suffer the slings and arrows of outrageous fortune, or to enjoy your life. So defend the hedonist plug-in position. At least it's a different take. --Lambiam 23:34, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
Anti-kosher foods
Is there any common food item that breaks more of the kosher laws than a bacon, lettuce, and tomato with cheese sandwich? --67.185.172.158 21:39, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Sure, put some shrimp on that sandwich. - AMP'd 21:50, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Also eat it during Passover, the bread won't be kosher then. - AMP'd 21:54, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- I didn't know an SCBLT sub is a common food item. --Lambiam 23:27, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Double bacon please. :-) | AndonicO 23:59, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- Boil the bacon in the milk of the sow that gave birth to it . (Yuck!). Edison 00:34, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Double bacon please. :-) | AndonicO 23:59, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
In Mexico, I saw shrimp stuffed with cheese and wrapped in bacon. More commonly, a bacon cheesburger violates two laws -- three on Passover. -- Mwalcoff 01:34, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
I suppose that the bacon could be made from tissue removed from the living pig, without killing it. Bunthorne 04:08, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- On the odd chance anyone's interested in a serious answer, eating certain (but not all) insects is considered the worst violation of kashrut. Loomis 04:38, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- What insects are those? Bhumiya (said/done) 06:35, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, almost all insects actually. I know that when making a salad or anything with lettuce, for example, one is required to examine the lettuce by the light to make sure there aren't any bugs in it. Those definitely aren't kosher. The reason I said "certain (but not all) insects" is because I've been told by several Rabbis that there happen to be certain grasshoppers and/or locusts that indeed are kosher. I'm not sure which ones though, so don't take this as authoritative without actually asking a real expert on kashrut.
- I should also point out that it's a common misconception that pork is singled out as the "most unkosher" of meats, or that pigs are unkosher because they're "particularly" unclean animals. That's not the case at all. I believe it's based on a mistranslation ("unkosher"="unclean"? Well, sort of, but not in the "traditional" sense of "clean", just "unclean" as in "unfit for consumption"), along with the fact of course that pork is such a common meat eaten by gentiles. Many other animals are considered "unclean" for Jews to eat. Most of it is found Deuteronomy 14. To name a few: all fish and seafood without scales, horses, camels, monkeys, apes, rodents, felines, canines, certain birds such as vultures, osprays, falcons, ravens, ostriches, hawks, owls, pelicans, storks, herons...and a whole bunch more I can't remember. ALL of these are considered "unclean", or, in other words, "unfit for consumption". "Cleanliness", in the ordinary sense of the term, has little to do with it. (eg. Is a cow really any "cleaner" an animal than a horse?) Interestingly, though, according to Deut. 14:19: "And all swarming things are unclean unto you; they shall not be eaten". I'll have to ask my Rabbi next time I see him why he said certain grasshoppers and/or locusts are ok. (No worries though, I'm not in the habit of eating them!) :) Loomis 14:02, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Locusts mentions the kosher issue. But I wonder why you say that insect are more "un-kosher" than other proscribed items? Rmhermen 03:20, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- I should also point out that it's a common misconception that pork is singled out as the "most unkosher" of meats, or that pigs are unkosher because they're "particularly" unclean animals. That's not the case at all. I believe it's based on a mistranslation ("unkosher"="unclean"? Well, sort of, but not in the "traditional" sense of "clean", just "unclean" as in "unfit for consumption"), along with the fact of course that pork is such a common meat eaten by gentiles. Many other animals are considered "unclean" for Jews to eat. Most of it is found Deuteronomy 14. To name a few: all fish and seafood without scales, horses, camels, monkeys, apes, rodents, felines, canines, certain birds such as vultures, osprays, falcons, ravens, ostriches, hawks, owls, pelicans, storks, herons...and a whole bunch more I can't remember. ALL of these are considered "unclean", or, in other words, "unfit for consumption". "Cleanliness", in the ordinary sense of the term, has little to do with it. (eg. Is a cow really any "cleaner" an animal than a horse?) Interestingly, though, according to Deut. 14:19: "And all swarming things are unclean unto you; they shall not be eaten". I'll have to ask my Rabbi next time I see him why he said certain grasshoppers and/or locusts are ok. (No worries though, I'm not in the habit of eating them!) :) Loomis 14:02, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Add some hyrax to all of that and you'll be set. --140.247.249.64 19:06, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Thanks for the heads-up. Next time I'm at McDonalds, I'll avoid the Hyrax-McNuggets. Loomis 02:41, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
My understanding is that there are 5 species of locusts that are kosher. However, they are kosher only for certain groups of Yeminite Jews that have a history of eating them (long story, most of which I don't understand). My pet hypothesis about why the locust would be kosher is that old saying; "If you can beat 'em, eat 'em". Bunthorne 03:18, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
Questions about Palestinian elections system
I read Palestinian legislative election, 2006 but I have some questions :
1. I know there haven't been elections since 1996, how long can they go without elections (when there aren't conflicts?) Four years?
2. "The second ballot is for the voter's local constituency. The voter can cast up to as many votes for individual candidates as there are seats in his or her constituency. Votes are unweighted, and top-vote getters are elected to the PLC. For example, a voter in the Nablus district could cast up to six votes; the six candidates with the highest vote totals are elected." So they get a second ballot. This ballot is not attached to the first one right? I mean, when the voter drops them in the box, they are disconnected, right?
3. Considering the Nablus example again, can the voter vote for four candidates from four different parties?
4. What do they mean when they say Hamas got 44.5% of all votes? There is a first and second ballot.. where did they get that number?
5. Can a politician be a candidate on both the first and second ballot? If so, what do they do when this means a politician is elected twice???
Thank you very much,Evilbu 22:01, 21 December 2006 (UTC)
- You seem to be under the impression that the PA is actually an organization governed by the rule of law. For example, as to your first question: "how long can they go without elections (when there aren't conflicts?) Four years?" The sad truth of the matter is that they can go on as long as they please. As an example, Yasser Arafat was elected president on July 5, 1994 for a five year term, pursuant to Article 52 of the 1994 Constitution of Palestine, or if you prefer, pursuant to Article 70 of the 1995 Constitution of Palestine. Yet July 5, 1999 came and went with no presidential election whatsoever. Of course it might be understandable that during times of severe crisis elections might have to be postponed. Yet keep in mind that in July 1999 there was no such crisis. In fact, by July 2000, Arafat and then Israeli PM Ehud Barak were on such good terms that they actually got into that cutsy friendly jostle, each one insisting that the other should have the honour of entering Bill Clinton's cabin at Camp David first. Needless to say, Arafat's term as president essentially ended on the day he died. Loomis 15:39, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- But in theory parliaments should be re-elected every four years, and presidential elections are to held every four years? So wasn't there a massive Hamas uprising in July 1999 when Arafat didn't organise elections? Or were there? Do you happen to know the answer to my other questions? Thanks.Evilbu 19:46, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm not sure why you say that in theory parliaments and presidential elections should be held every 4 years. There are many examples in many true democracies where the term is for something other than "4 years". For example in France, presidential elections are held, and the presidential term lasts, 7 years. In Canada, our Constitution requires Parliament to hold a general election at least every 5 years. Of course the government rarely waits to the last minute, and, generally speaking, chooses to hold an election after about 4 years, at a time they feel most confident about being reelected. In the US, all House members serve for a term of 2 years, and Senators for 6. There's simply no special rule that democratic elections are invariably meant to be held every 4 years. As for the rest of your questions, I'm sorry but I really have no clue. I see no purpose in studying the intricacies of rules that are so casually ignored, and as such have absolutely no realistic significance. Loomis 01:51, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- But in theory parliaments should be re-elected every four years, and presidential elections are to held every four years? So wasn't there a massive Hamas uprising in July 1999 when Arafat didn't organise elections? Or were there? Do you happen to know the answer to my other questions? Thanks.Evilbu 19:46, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
December 22
People of Waterloo?
I am wondering what the demonym for people living in Waterloo, specifically Waterloo, Ontario is. I live there but have no idea, thanks!
--ManicLogic 02:53, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- "Waterlooan" is the one I remember learning when I lived there, but Google finds no instances of it on the
Kitchener-WaterlooRecord's web site. It does find one instance of "Waterlooian" on the paper's site, as well as references to waterlooians.ca, so I guess "Waterlooian" is now the preferred form to the extent that there is one. --Anonymous, December 22, 03:49 (UTC)
- I would have thought Waterloovian would have fit the bill. Jooler
- In the original Waterloo (without, of course, suggesting that these have any currency in Canada!): in French, un Waterlootois. I couldn't find anything in Walloon (e.g. at walon.org or the Walloon Misplaced Pages) or in Dutch (de inwoners van Waterloo?). Wareh 01:33, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- I grew up in those parts, and can't recall ever hearing one. Maybe there isn't one, and they are just plain "people from Waterloo." Does there have to be one? Can't we just lump you in with the "Kitchenerites"? Bobanny 11:22, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Crowd conundrum
How is it that in large events such as concerts, plays, recitals, etc. when someone starts a standing ovation or the wave, the entire crowd joins in 99% of the time without any spoken cues? Is it possibly an ESP-esque social behaviour? Crisco 1492 03:05, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Not really. Waves are usually started by a group of people that are already socially attached (such as a group of friends), so it's simpler than a bunch of strangers following a single stranger. Can't say anything about standing ovations from experience, but I'd say that if something deserves a standing ovation, people will generally know. — Kieff 03:32, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Re: standing ovations (from experience): it's an individual expression in a group setting and as such has a public, social-behavioral aspect. The "unspoken cues" component occurs in the first moments of seated applause, when individuals personally motivated to accord this acclaim will glance around (overtly or covertly) to see whether someone else validates this by standing up. This gives, as it were, the signal for others to join in -- but only those so motivated. I can't recall being present at any instance where the entire audience gave a standing ovation. -- Deborahjay 03:48, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- A 99%-compliance crowd phenomenon I've experienced is when audience applause at the end of a concert program changes to rhythmic clapping as a request to the performers to play an encore. This is clearly based on an auditory cue, but is also an established cultural behavior -- at least in Israel, where I encounter it regularly (and I've asked on the discussion page for Encore, whether this practice occurs in other countries). If you continue to simply applaud rather than join the clapping, you're audibly in the minority (and sound like you ain't got rhythm...). -- Deborahjay 06:18, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Re: standing ovations - if the person sitting in front of you stands up, you often can't see the stage and the performers anymore. Unless you stand up too. Skarioffszky 10:27, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Also, standing ovations are often in recognition of exceptional performances, and often, said recognition (from an audience) can be universal and instantaneous. Anchoress 14:52, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Don't forget peer pressure. After a certain percentage has jumped to its collective feet, you might not want to make yourself conspicuous by not standing up and clapping. Clarityfiend 18:47, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- True true. Thats a pretty good point, Skarioffszky. LOL at least it gives a practical explanation. Deborahjay, Anchoress and Clarity, those are good points too... Thanks people for all the help about standing ovations. However, what about doing the wave in sports events? Crisco 1492 23:44, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- A quick look around online finds this...
"Their analysis indicates that it takes only a few dozen fans leaping to their feet with their arms up to trigger a wave. Once started, it usually rolls in a clockwise direction at a rate of about 40 feet per second, or about 20 seats per second. They say at any given time, it is about 15 seats wide." I think that a certain amount of 'party mood' atmosphere will play a role in the development of a wave and will incorporate some form of 'group mentality' to why we take part. Obviously not everybody in the stadium takes part but there are papers online on them...search for "mexican wave dynamics" in google, that's what I did...some interesting stuff. ny156uk 22:34, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Mexican wave dynamics? Is there an article here? How'd it get the name "Mexican wave?" Crisco 1492 00:52, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- See Mexican Wave - seems to be based on an occurance in the World Cup in Mexico 1986. I added the word 'dynamics' as I thought that was a term that the search engine would find matching for scientific/research studies about the way a mexican wave works/how it is organised (i.e. the dynamics of a mexican wave). ny156uk 02:01, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Eurasian Pole of Inaccessibility
Google Earth shows a rather extensive building complex near the Eurasian Pole of Inaccessibility, at about 46°16′41″N 86°20′53″E / 46.278°N 86.348°E / 46.278; 86.348. Anybody know what it is? ➥the Epopt 06:48, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- The place is called Xazgat (I got this from NASA World Wind).--Pharos 07:32, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Cresh?
I keep hearing a word that sounds like cresh in the context of Christian nativity scenes (I think). What exactly does this mean? I may be mispelling it because I couldn't find it in Webster's or Wiktionary. ike9898 14:41, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- The word is crèche; it's a French word meaning manger. - Eron 14:47, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
"Irrepressible Sister Miriam" by Wilfrido Ma. Guerrero
i really need help in finding the script "Irrepressible Sister Miriam" by Wilfrido Ma. Guerrero. I just want to read it. I wonder if you, guys, can help me with this. thanks a lot! —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 124.106.143.192 (talk) 16:12, 22 December 2006 (UTC).
- I struck out here here here here here and here . Maybe consider calling public libraries, college drama departments, local and regional theaters, any organizations with whom the author's been involved, and Samuel French. Surely someone has a copy, just not online. Wolfgangus 16:41, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- The first draft (titled "The lively nun : the naughty sister Miriam") is in the archives of the Northern Illinois University Library, OCLC 40241024.EricR 18:04, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Hmm, the author search at worldcat didn't seem to work correctly, the final draft was published in: Guerrero, Wilfrido Maria (1980). Guerrero : 4 latest plays. Manila: Regal. OCLC 12052758. and Guerrero, Wilfrido Maria (1990). Retribution : and eight other selected plays. Quezon City: New Day. OCLC 23901270 ISBN 9711004119.EricR 23:46, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Looking for a dance
I'm working on a poem. I'm trying to have dances representing three different types of relationships.
- Business Relationship, boss/employee
- Friendship
- Romance
For romance, they type dance is easy, if a bit cliched - a tango. For friendship, a waltz was what I was going to use. It's the first dance I'm having trouble with. I want something formal, preferrably complicated. Again, the subtext is that of a workplace keeping the two from being too close.
Any suggestions? I looked up Ballroom dancing, but the only styles listed there were tango, waltz, and foxtrot. Thanks!TrekBarnes 19:09, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- How bout a quadrille? And if I may say, I think that a waltz is more romantic than a tango, and a square dance or jive is way more friendly than a waltz. Anchoress 20:21, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- Or a minuet with dancers on opposite sides of a desk? No touching there. An American Ballroom Companion 1490-1920from the Music Division, Library of Congress, may be a useful place to go digging. (I've taken the liberty to wikify your question a bit, Trek, you may wish to see how by clicking <edit>.) --Seejyb 23:38, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- I too don't agree with the cliche sense of tango representing "romance." Other than its being danced by a (male/female) couple, it would seem more expressive of tension in their relationship, at best a sense of staying in synch? For romance, I'd favor the waltz: chronologically it's contemporary with the Romantic era in music, and the woman is practically "swept off her feet" by the man, who leads. -- Deborahjay 01:18, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- A tango is a dance of No No No. A rumba is a dance of Yes Yes Yes. My wife on her own came up with a minuet for the business relationship -- or, a square dance with the boss as caller. Viennese Waltz could be a model for the act of love -- especially the utter exhaustion at the end... --jpgordon 15:49, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- After reading jpgordon and Deborahjay's comments, and considering its allusions to dominance and submission, the Argentine tango might be a candidate for the boss/employee dance. The waltz for romance and any of the above for friendship. ---Sluzzelin 17:37, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- A tango is a dance of No No No. A rumba is a dance of Yes Yes Yes. My wife on her own came up with a minuet for the business relationship -- or, a square dance with the boss as caller. Viennese Waltz could be a model for the act of love -- especially the utter exhaustion at the end... --jpgordon 15:49, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Request for information on painter known as J. Lettwil
I have been unable to find any information on the 'net about a painter identified only as J. Lettwil. The only information I have about him is that a painting of his was purchased in the 1950's. I have been unable to verify if he is or is not of Australian origin. Is there any info on this painter available? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 20 questions (talk • contribs) 20:26, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
Customs laws in Australia
I'm an Australian currently travelling in the USA. Where can I find out about what I can bring back to Australia through customs? I found the official website pretty unhelpful about my specific questions.
- For example, I know that plant matter is restricted, but are teabags okay? Would it make a difference if the box of tea is open or sealed? What are the rules for other food items?
- Second, I am interested in a sexually explicit comic book (Alan Moore's Lost Girls). It's said to have great literary and artistic merit, if that makes any difference. But I don't want to spend the $75 if Customs is going to decide it offends the moral standards of Australia. Can anyone advise on this situation?
Thanks in advance, Grace 02:56, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Is Australian Customs in the habit of opening up books sent in the mail? --jpgordon 06:00, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- My impression was that erotic/pornographic material showing consenting adults generally would be legal (except for certain fetishes such as urolagnia), I don't think Lost Girls would pose a problem, unless the customs are really nit-picky about copyright infringements... =S 惑乱 分からん 13:18, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
December 23
02 Governor's race in Wisconsin
Did Former Governor Thompson support McCallum or his brother? I am very interested in politics and government, so I asked this! Thank you, District Attorney 14:47, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- I don't have a source, but I seem to recall that he supported McCallum. I'm not positive, though. --Maxamegalon2000 00:43, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
sex education
Is sex education a human right? Where? Should it be? Rugbyball 16:55, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- That's a matter of opinion, but many would say yes, in that it's part of education, which they also consider to be a human right, not merely a privilege. Others might not agree, although sex education is certainly critical to control disease, unwanted pregnancies, abortions, and poverty, and only a few people are in favor of those things. StuRat 17:07, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- If you're asking whether this is an inalienable right for children: I don't know whether a document such as the League of Nations' Declaration of the Rights of the Child provides more than guidelines (and we don't find sex education specified among them). It might be worth checking whether subsequent bodies dealing with health, education, and welfare have made any progress in this area, and with more authority for enforcement. As far as sex education being among the mandatory elements in a curriculum of studies for public schools – these are adopted by whatever governmental authority operates those schools. -- Deborahjay 05:14, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Despite the Declaration of Independence and any number of papers issued by the UN, all "rights" are transient social compacts agreed upon by certain people at certain times and there are no universal human rights that transcend this definition. alteripse 16:09, 24 December 2006 (UTC) PS: A large proportion of the world thinks parents have the right to choose what information about sex to provide to their children.
- I can think of several, related reasons for the latter. There are many individuals and entire communities whose belief systems maintain that sex is:
- (a) a private matter and inappropriate for discussion in public settings, and
- (b) to be practiced only by consenting adults, preferably or even exclusively restricted to a monogamous, heterosexual dyad sanctioned by local laws.
- As a result, people holding such beliefs may support the control or outright prohibition of sex education in public schools. They may fear that such knowledge would promote premarital sexual activity rather than strict abstinence. This consideration is viewed with such great concern that it outweighs the possible, often grave risks such as those mentioned above by StuRat-- Deborahjay 19:11, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- I can think of several, related reasons for the latter. There are many individuals and entire communities whose belief systems maintain that sex is:
- Some people believe that there are universal human rights, which is why various governments and organizations like the United Nations publish papers, make laws, and enumerate lists detailing them. As to parents having the right to choose what information to provide, what happens when this comes up against the child's right to have information? Some parents believe they have the right to physically harm their children; others believe that the child's right to safety and security overrides this. - Eron 17:58, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Depends on how each individual reacts to the knowledge. The american system of democracy is not the solution or panacea for this. Excessive dependence on science only eradicates the spiritual side of a human being. 15:49, 25 December 2006 (UTC)~
Asian or Aboriginal?
Are Micronesians considered Asian, Aboriginal or something else? This is a serious question and I am not trying to offend people of either background. I ask because I know a fellow from this area and he said he is not Asian. He said there is a word for his people but he couldn’t remember it at the time. I know Taiwan and Australia still houses a population of aboriginal people. (Ghostexorcist 21:56, 23 December 2006 (UTC))
- Austronesians? Skarioffszky 21:59, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Australian government departments that deal with indigenous affairs are always careful to make the distinction between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people. So Torres Strait Islanders, at least, are not considered Aboriginal. --24.175.191.151 17:23, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
How to get projects from company/ or making clients?
I started a very small software company.I want to know that how any company make someone his client. I want projects for my company but I don't know where i get it? So, pls help me. I am regular reader of Digit.I don't find any one better to help me. My email: omprakashshahi@yahoo.com —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 219.64.187.187 (talk) 22:48, 23 December 2006 (UTC).
DDB 02:04, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
The Riddle Song (Traditional)
Where did the song come from? How has it developed? I understand it is a lullaby, has it always been? I understand it predates 1700's. Are there Greek or Chinese antecedants? Not to be confused with the Walt Whitman poem.
I gave my love a cherry that has no stone, I gave my love a chicken that has no bone, I gave my love a ring that has no end, I gave my love a baby with no crying.
How can there be a cherry that has no stone? How can there be a chicken that has no bone? How can there be a ring that has no end? How can there be a baby with no crying?
A cherry, when it's blooming, it has no stone, A chicken when it's pipping, it has no bone, A ring when it's rolling, it has no end, A baby when it's sleeping, has no crying. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by Ddball (talk • contribs) 00:18, 24 December 2006 (UTC).Sorry, I'd not signed it. Trying now DDB 02:04, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Some says it's a "Traditional Appalachian version". Your resarch may end toward places where chicken and cherries did grow and the custom to offer a ring - and have crying babies - was strong. That method was used with a strange success to place indo european origins near the Vistule. -- DLL 14:59, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Tracking down folk songs is incredibly difficult with so many versions and are rarely recorded. This seems even more difficult as varying riddles and dialogues are added to many songs and riddles have been popular in english literature since old english. Captain Wedderburn's Courtship and Riddles Wisely Expounded are two early printed examples but similar versions surely go back much further. I certainly don't know of greek or chinese atecedants which seem unlikely although they may have songs of a comparable style. English and Scottish Ballads by Francis James Child mentions the Old Danish Svend Vonved to which is related. meltBanana 00:58, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Thank you meltbanana and dll. Muchly appreciated DDB 02:19, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Name this book
A friend is trying to find a book she heard about (recently, I would guess) on the BBC. She describes it as "a book (fiction) by a female author, who i think is a reporter, about algerian workers in either the US or the UK. she did some reporting on algerian workers and then decided there was enough material for a book, i guess." Not a very helpful description, I agree, but in the hope that this is a book that's recently had some publicity, can anyone identify it? Thanks · rodii · 00:40, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Harbor by Lorraine Adams? (Extract) Skarioffszky 10:22, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Why does the world seem to hate Saddam Hussein?
Saddam wasn't the nicest guy.
If we replace Saddam's name with any that of any human being you've ever met or known (and also your own name and my own name) then we'll still have a true statement.
What exactly is it about him (not what anyone's saying about him or portrayals of him) that makes him so easy to hate and so hard to love? He's done wrong and for a while he thought he was right. I don't know what he's thinking right now but unless someone tells him that there's still hope and that he can still be loved, there's a chance he might change.
The above paragraph could also be about any human being you've ever met or known (and also you yourself and me myself (except if you're female then you may have to alter the pronouns but that's not a big deal)) and we'd still have a true statement.
So discuss why Saddam is so hated, or perhaps make the choice to show him that there's still hope in the world. Give him a present and hope that that'll cheer him up. Christmas is two days from now. The gifts might arrive late if you send them now, so the sooner you send him a letter/e-mail/bunch of flowers, the better. (and again, you could do this for anyone, not just Saddam) Itrade 14:38, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Let's see… A wealthy, arrogant, absolute dictator who raped & tortured people for entertainment and killed anyone who disagreed with him (by the thousands) … If you'd like to put your name to that you might be disliked too — regardless, this isn't the place for that sort of philosophical discussion.--Invisifan 16:03, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
Eh, I asked why he was hated, not disliked. If he's done wrong, I've done wrong and (You can of course replace John's name for anyone else's in this discussion (I'll just say John because John's a very common name (John and Bob. Most common example dudes)) John's done wrong, then we could still meet up, tell each other about what our last dinner was like and then high five to eating good food. (If: All done wrong; But then: High fives and food are totally sweet)
I posted this because I believe that love ( is firstly a choice, secondly an attitude and finally one of the true messages of Christmas.
I posted this here because I didn't want to move it to the misc help desk just yet. Seeing your response ("regardless, this isn't the place for that sort of philosophical discussion.") I guess I'll move it over there and see what happens. But I'll leave it here, too, because I think Saddam deserves a chance to be loved. Itrade 07:08, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Hate to say it, but I really dont think this is the place to be arguing about Christian ethics, and also whether or not it is right to love or hate Saddam. I say this because neither has any relevance to the article itself. Also, the way in which you gave a bible reference as if it is fact was extremely annoying and preachy, I wouldnt recommend continuing to preach about kindness, "factual" Bible stories are extremely patronising. That said, I agree with what you said to a degree, the fact that he is a murderer shouldn`t detract from the food, so long as he pays the bill. Plebmonk 07:22, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
To be straight with you, and not completely buying into the relevence thingy, it isn't hatred or personal between Bush and Hussein (I know you didn't bring the US pres up). The issue is not about hatred. The free Iraqi peoples are testing their new laws out, and they have to be careful. To execute Hussein immediately is justifiable. However, the legal process by which this sentence is to occur needs to be established .. for the sake of other Iraqi peoples.
Nothing we do to Hussein will chgange his mind or his acts. It doesn't matter to the heads of Syria, Iran or North Korea. But how the Iraqi government treats this person is a blueprint for how they treat others .. IMHO DDB 08:44, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- I think that even as evil dictators go, Saddam was one of the most evil of recent memory. I suggest reading this Atlantic Monthly profile of him. -- Mwalcoff 09:43, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- You may also find that many people do not truly 'hate' Saddam' because it is difficult to have such strong feelings about somebody you do not know/have not met. Nobody is 100% pure evil and so, yes, even Saddam will have 'good' factors and has the possibility to change/atone for his sins. The way he is treated/what the courts do as a result of their actions should not be decided on whether or not he is loved or hated, but on what the justice system says. As someone once said "you go to prison as punishment, not to be punished". Whilst in prison he should be treat no different to other prisoners. Your question is a poor one because the actions of Saddam are not merely something you can say "you have done bad/everybody has done bad" - there are degrees of goodness and bad and whilst nobody is perfect, few people will have brought about a reign of terror and destruction as Saddam. Forgiving is noble and realising the error of your ways is a step on the path to redemption, but it is naive to expect people to be able to forgive such nefarious actions. ny156uk 11:42, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
I love the equivalence of mass murder and repressive dictatorship with how just about everyone "does something wrong" in their life. Yeah, I've done things wrong, but I've never killed thousands of people just because of their political opinions. I think there are some lines which can be drawn. --24.147.86.187 15:15, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
December 24
Ande Ande Lumutan
I'm trying to find a brief overview of Ande Ande Lumutan, an Indonesian myth / traditional story. Does anyone know the story? I'm not sure about the spelling of the title though, it may be Ande Ande Lumut, Ande Ande Lumutan, Ande Ande Lumur, Ande Ande Lumuran, or the preceeding with Andai instead of Ande. Crisco 1492 10:53, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- "...the AndheAndhe Lumut, a popular drama of East Java." Beatty, Andrew (1999). Varieties of Javanese Religion: An Anthropological Account. pp. footnote #4, p. 251. google books. EricR 04:01, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
- This looks to be the best link found thru google—unless someone around happens to speak Javanese or Indonesian. EricR 04:22, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Initial Public Offering
- Take an example, Mr. X has made a company from scratch without outside financing. Now the company has grown. So Mr. X decides to take it public, so he can grow the company even more. Mr. X decides to put 20% of the stake on the Y stock exchange via the IPO. Now Mr. X will have 80% of the stake in the company. Is this 80% of his shares counted in the Outstanding Shares/Float? Can he sell all of his 80% stake on the stock exchange immediately after the IPO? Would like to see more than one answer, and if possible references. Thnx. --Judged 06:23, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- How much he can sell, and when, is usually an agreement between the underwriters of the IPO and the corporation. The underwriters aren't likely to put up a lot of money if the CEO is going to sink the price of the stock as soon as it goes public! Most commonly (at least in the US), insiders agree to hold on to their stock for six months after the IPO; sometimes there are exceptions (for example, at eBay, the holding period was negotiated down to three months). There are, of course, other issues regarding the fiduciary responsibility of the directors to the other shareholders -- that's one of the reasons the CEO can't dump in a hurry. --jpgordon 18:05, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- So let me get this straight, does the Founder have to pay for his 80% stake after the IPO which released 20% in stock exchange, so he can sell his 80% stake after 6-12 months? --Judged 21:29, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- No. Before the IPO he owns 100%. With the IPO he's essentially selling 20%, leaving him with 80%. Loomis 23:29, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- So does the proceeds from the 20% goes into the founders pocket, or the corporation for expansion? And he can sell the rest of 80% after a year with proceeds going directly into his pockets?--Judged 00:27, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- I should probably qualify my above statement. I'm no partcular expert on how IPOs are generally conducted, (on that I defer to JP!) but I do know about corporate law. By the way you framed it, he's simply selling shares that he already owns, without any issuing of new shares by the company. If that's the case, then basically he's only selling what he already owns, and so yes, he basically gets to pocket any of the proceeds of that sale. On the other hand, if the IPO involves the company issuing new shares, then the proceeds of the sale of the new issue go to the company. Loomis 01:14, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- In other words, the Founder can make as many shares as he wants before the IPO? What I mean is consider the IPO is 20,000,000 shares. So before the IPO he can make 100,000,000 shares? And then after a year these 80,000,000 shares can be sold on the stock exchange?--Judged 03:32, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- First off, thanks for your comments on my talk page, they were much apreciated!
- I know it may sound complicated, and it may seem like the "founder" can basically get away with murder, but it just doesn't work that way.
- I'm not sure why you prefer to use the term "founder" to what he really is, a "director". Yes, he may have "founded" the corporation, but once the corporation comes into existence, it is, by law, a separate "person". The status of and powers associated with the term "founder" basically end there. Afterwards, before selling any stake in the business, the only status he's acting in is a "director" and "sole shareholder" of a technically independent entity.
- Now say, to make things as simple as possible, that the corporation is merely a "holding company" (and therefore has no growth potential, as that would only complicate matters for now) and has assets of $100 million. Before the IPO, the number of shares is irrelevant. If there exist 100 million shares, then each share only has a value of $1 ($100 million (in assets) ÷ 100 million shares = $1 per share). Since he holds all the 100 million shares, 100 millon X $1 = $100 million dollars). For argument's sake, he can have the corporation divided in a billion shares, but that wouldn't really do him any good, as the company would still only be worth what its assets are worth ($100 million) only now it would be divided up into a billion shares $100. since 1 million in assets ÷ 1 billion shares = 10¢ per share, and 1 billion shares X 10¢ = $100 million dollars. He's no better off than when he was before.
- I hope I'm explaining myself well, all I'm trying to get across is that the number of shares (under normal circumstances) is really irrelevant, as he can just as easily divide the company up into a zillion shares, but still wouldn't have any effect of the value of his holdings.
- All that investors look at (or should be looking at), is what's called the "market cap", which is basically the number of shares outstanding (i.e. existing, including the founders shares i.e. 100 million shares outstanding), their market value (in the example the corp. is just a holding corp., so there's no reason why the "market cap" should be any different from the market value of the assets ($100 million)), divide the two and end up with $1 per share.
- Now that he's sold 20 million shares, at $1 a share, he's taken in $20 million for himself personally, and he's now only got 80 million shares, which at a value of $1 a share, is worth $80 million. So he's essenially no better off than before.
- Also please tell me why a company would rather sell from the treasury instead of the founder selling his own shares to raise money --Judged 12:13, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Now as I hope I've explained, if the founder sells shares, it doesn't really help the company at all. The company isn't getting any influx of cash. All that's really happening is that its ownership has been altered. Now assuming the corp. is looking to expand, and assuming its assets are all in real estate and it doesn't have a penny in "cash" to buy more real estate, its got a few options on the table. First, it could sell some of its real estate for cash in order to buy different real estate, but by doing that it's not really expanding, just shifting around assets. The only other two ways of raising cash is by borrowing it, o selling equity in itself. Any well managed corporation should be definitely be leveraging itself to a certain degree, that is, it should it be borrowing money from wherever, using, in this case, it's real estate as security for mortgages. It should then take the money raised and invest it in more real estate, with the aim of earning a better rate of return through renting out the real estate, plus hoping that it'll eventually increase in value, than the rate it's paying to the bank.
- Finally though, it can raise cash by selling equity. It can, for example, issue another 100 million shares. The price the market should be willing to buy the shares at shouldn't change, everything else being equal. 100 million shares would be issued a $1 a piece, bringing in $100 million to the corp in cash, which is now worth $200 million ($100 million in assets, plus $100 million in the cash it just raised). Of course the number of shares outstanding would also double, from 100 million, to 200 million. In effect, the value of each outstanding share wouldn't change. Neither would the value of the founder's stake change, since all that's happened is that instead of owning 80% of the shares of a corp with a market cap of $100 million, now he owns 40% of a corp with a market cap of $200. Either way, his stake remains unchanged at being worth $80 million, except now the corp has an extra $100 million in cash to expand with.
- Of course all of the above is a very simplistic model. Things practically never work this way. What happens in IPOs is that the "growth potential" of the business is figured into its market valuation, and so if investors see the corp as having the potential to explode in value, they're very often willing to pay a premium for the growth factor. This is where enormous fortunes are made. Say the corp wasn't a simple real estate holding company, but instead we were in the late '90s an it was a dot-com company. The extra 100 million shares issued would bring in waaaaaay more than an addtional $100 million dollars. Based on investors' belief that the corp is really going places, they may be willing to spend, let's say $10 a share. That would mean that there would be now be 200 million shares outstanding, each share with an inflated value of $10, making the business' putting the business' new market cap at $2billion. Now, should the founder still wish to sell a 20% of his stake, or 20 million shares, he'd now rake in 20 million shares X $10 = $200 million! And he'd still own 40% of the business (80 million of the 200 million shares outstanding, worth 80 million X $10 (on paper though, a the market price can change at a moments notice) = $800 million dollars! Of course a few months later the dot-com bubble bursts and all those fools who paid $10 a share are left with only a fraction of their investment, say $1 a share, while the founder gets to walk away with the $200 million he cashed in on, plus 80 million $1 shares, for a grand total of $280 million! Not bad eh?
- Of course, like I said, I'm no expert on exactly each and every detail of what goes on in IPO's, but I'm fairly confident that I've got a grasp on the basics. If JP can correct a few assumptions I may have got wrong, then please JP, by all means! Loomis 16:53, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- I'm no particular expert either -- I just know about stuff that happens around an IPO, having been involved with one. --jpgordon 17:08, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Of course, like I said, I'm no expert on exactly each and every detail of what goes on in IPO's, but I'm fairly confident that I've got a grasp on the basics. If JP can correct a few assumptions I may have got wrong, then please JP, by all means! Loomis 16:53, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
CEO Salaries & Bonuses
- Larry Ellison who was listed with a net worth of 16 Billion by Forbes, his year 2005 compensation: salary $975,000, bonus $6,500,000, other compensation $955,100 SEC form 14A. My question lies here with does the Founder have to state in the Prospectus how much salary & bonus he is going to make after the IPO? Because surely before the IPO his company would not been able to afford that kind of salary withouth going broke? --Judged 21:51, 22 December 2006 (UTC)
- (The following is the law for Canadian Corporations, but I can't see it being all too different at all in the US or any other developed countries). A publicly traded corporation requires at least three directors, who in turn hire the senior officers (the CEO, CFO, COO etc. who actually "run" the business) and set their salaries. The only way someone like Ellison could get such compensation is if he were hired by the board of directors and his compensation set by them that way. Of course it's more than likely that he's one of those three (or more) directors, (one can be both a director and an officer,) and the other two could be good buddies of his so that alone wouldn't necessarily stop him from basically overpaying himself. The real legal barrier would be what JP referred to above as the "fiduciary duty" that all directors owe to the corporations they direct. They're basically bound by law to act in the best interests of the corporation, which of course, would include not overpaying employees (i.e. Ellison himself). Should a minority shareholder (an owner of any of the 20% sold at the IPO) feel that any director (i.e. Ellison) is breaching the fiduciary duty he owes the corporation by overpaying a certain employee (Ellison again), in a matter that is arguably not in the best interests of the company, any minority shareholder (i.e. any shareholder of the 20% of the company sold to the public) can file an action in what is called "oppression", and Ellison (as well as any other director that approved of it) would basically have to convince a judge that as a "director", the salary he's paying to himself as "officer" is truly "in the best interests of the company". Loomis 00:52, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- In other words you are saying that they dont have to mention their "Bonuses" and the Stock Options they may recive in the Prospectus?--Judged 03:26, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- Sorry for having used the word "salary" when what I really meant was any remuneration in any form. Loomis 10:30, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- So why has no purchased one share of each of the public corporations and taken all the high paid CEOs to Court?--Judged 03:20, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- On what grounds? That their one share has lost value because of the CEO being overpaid? Further, "overpaid" is a matter of intepretation. Look at the CEO of Goldman Sachs, who just received a bonus of $53 million dollars. That sounds really ridiculously high, until you realize that the main function of the CEO of a public company is to keep the stock price high, and Goldman's profits were up 70% and the stock price up 58% -- so it is pay for performance, and there's not a shareholder who could rightfully complain. On the other hand, when CEOs get paid big bonuses even when their stock price is in the pits -- that's when the Elliot Spitzers of the world take notice and action. --jpgordon 03:31, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- JP's got it completely right. I couldn't have said it better myself. Loomis 10:30, 23 December 2006 (UTC)
- So Regardless of the Prospectus, the CEO/Chairman can increase their remuneration after? --Judged 16:20, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- No. It's got little do to with the prospectus and all to do with the directors' fiduciary duty to continuously act in the best interest of the company. JP's point only seems to have been that if a director pays a CEO a zillion dollars, and the director increases the value of the business by 10 zillion dollars, he's obviously doing a good job and so there's nothing wrong in paying him such a ridiculous salary, as the money has apparently been very well spent. Loomis 16:58, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- And the CEO or Chairman can't do much of anything unilaterally regarding compensation. That's what boards of directors are for. Boards can change the remuneration of those under their direct purview any time they want, yes. They have to give notice (a filing with the SEC), and it's subject to the scrutiny of the stockholders and the regulators, but the prospectus says what the compensation is now -- it doesn't guarantee the compensation will not change. --jpgordon 17:11, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Sorry again. JP's right. When I said "if a director pays a CEO a zillion dollars", I should have said "if the board of directors decides on paying a CEO a zillion dollars". I mentioned before that any publicly traded company requires at least 3 directors, and assuming it works by majority rule (which I'm pretty sure it does), no single director can approve of anything on his or her own. You'd need at the very least a majority (i.e. 2 if there's only the minimum 3 on the board) to approve these things. But as I said as well, that's not much of a safeguard, as the second director can just be a good buddy of the first, and just agree with whatever he decides. The real protection against any sort of unfair practice such as overpaying a CEO is found in the law: the (US) SEC regulations and the "oppresion" remedy I mentioned above. Loomis 19:26, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- So the Board of Directors can make shares out of thin air after the IPO? --Judged 17:15, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Not knowing the exactly laws/regulations around this, if a firm issued more shares 'out of thin air' all they would be doing is diluting the value of the existing shares. Companies do do this to raise revenue (they also do buy-backs at times) and it can be successful, but investor confidence will inevitably be shaken if the firm does not take into account the effect this will have on the value of the stock/the value of existing shareholder's holdings. In simple terms I understand it to be something like this...a firm worth $10m with $1m shares makes every share worth $10, if the directors issue another 250,000 shares that makes each share now worth $8, the other 1m shares have had their value diluted by the new issuing. I suggest looking at www.economist.com, they have a good range of books available from simple finance to stock markets and all things economic. Additionally it is one of the finest newspapers (well weekly magazine) that I have read. Apologies if I got any of the above wrong, all my own understand rather than any classical training/education! ny156uk 18:54, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well yes, they can create shares "out of thin air", but you've got to think about what exactly they're gonna do with these shares. If, hypothetically, the company issues shares but just holds onto them, nothing's really going on. I don't see any dilution. The corporation is just holding its own shares, and so economically speaking, they're not "outstanding". Think about if the federal reserve were to double the money supply by printing X amount of dollars, but then put in some vault somewhere and do absolutely nothing with it. So long as the cash hasn't entered general circulation and no one (including the government) is actually doing anything with it, it may as well not exist. Only if it entered into circulation would a doubling of the money supply actualy dilute the value of the dollar (all other things being equal, by half I would imagine). The same thing would hold if a corporation would create shares and then just do nothing with them. They might as just as well not exist.
- Of course when corporations issue shares, its usually (if not always) for the purpose of raising capital. They first need to file a prospectus with all kinds of information such as what they plan to do with the extra cash, etc., and then they sell it to the public, for the going price. Here still no "dilution" is happening, at least not with respect to the value of the share. If there are 10 million outstanding shares each trading at $1, giving the company a market cap of $10 million, if they "create out of thin air" 10 million more shares and sell them for the going price of $1, they'd raise another $10 million in cash, the market cap of the company would now be $20 million, there would now be 20 million outstanding shares, and the original owners of the first 10 million shares would be unaffected value wise, since their shares haven't changed in value. Of course their stake in the business would change, for example someone owning 2% of the shares of a $10 million business would now find himself owning 1% of a $20 million dollar business. Loomis 19:59, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Well, actually, from what I've observed, secondary offerings lower the value of the stock. So instead of owning that 2% of a $10 mill business, they original shareholders end up owning 1% of, say, a $15 mill business. --jpgordon 20:56, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Final Clarification - But they can just issue these "new" shares created after the IPO to the founder after he has sold his 80% stake? From the above responses you have said yes they can issue new shares after the IPO. So would this be the same class of shares, I see usually companies have different classes, most commonly seen with the Banks, which sometimes have A-Z all classes. --Judged 21:04, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- All new offerings of stock pretty much work the same way. They're pretty much just like IPOs requiring a prospectus etc., the only difference is that they're not "Initial" Public Offerings. He can certainly buy them at the going rate if he wishes. Or perhaps, if his original bona fide remuneration included options, he can get them at a lower rate, or perhaps even for free if that's what was part of a fair compensation package. But no, he can't essentially just give himself free shares. Loomis 22:22, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
Cultural Assessment
I have been reading your articles on culture and found no notations on cultural assessment or cultural models. I would like to call your attention to http://www.richardsonglobal.com/CSI.html. At this URL, a graphic and description of a statistically validated model of culture that I developed can be found. It describes three domains of culture and seven related subdomains that your readers can use to assist them in understanding, analyzing and comparing cultural style preferences. I hold a Doctorate and two Masters Degrees from Columbia University, am a member of MENSA, a publishd author, have trained over 30,000 people in 28 different countries and was the recipient of The Congressional Medal of Merit this year, so this is not some "Mickey Mouse" reference. If possible, I would greatly appreciate its being listed in Misplaced Pages.
Thanks
Dr. Richard A. Punzo President, Richardson Global —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 67.84.165.65 (talk) 19:51, 24 December 2006 (UTC).
- Besides your credentials noted above, you've provided the URL of a commercial website with one page describing your cultural assessment model. I suggest you particularly read the guideline page explaining the Misplaced Pages "notability" criterion for new articles, along with the Frequently Asked Questions about creating a new page. If you proceed to do so, consider including a References section with academic and other publications that cite your model. Hope that helps -- Deborahjay 23:09, 24 December 2006 (UTC)
- Agreed. The problem is that you've got a commercial site there, and it's not appropriate to try to use Misplaced Pages to sell things, by posting links here. If you have a web site which explains all the theory without trying to sell anything, and that theory has been published in reputable scientific journals, then we'd be glad to add a link to that site. StuRat 13:25, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
New Testament
Where in the New Testament does Jesus say that His followers will be angry at Him? 71.100.6.152 05:55, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Changing date from BC to AD
How did this come to be? While I understand the meaning of BC = Before Christ and AD = After Death, it is not clear when this calendar method truly came into effect and how the world's people came to adopt it. Europe and Asia anyway as I expect the Americas - indians, Mayans and Incas were on their own calendar.
- AD stands for Anno Domini, or the year of our lord. I believe that article answers your main question. As a side note, the acutal date for the birth of Christ is more likely 4 to 6 B.C.E. (see note below for definition), becuase of mistaken calcuations during the conversion process. ~~Dmarney 07:08, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Was it decreed by the Romans?
- In a sense yes, in that the Roman empire was converted to Christianity, and that the Catholic Church, now the state religion, was responsible for the creation of the calendar system. Again reference Anno Domini. ~~:Dmarney|Dmarney 07:11, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Certainly as no one can predict the future, those living in say 100 BC were not minting coins with such a date. Are BC dates therefore a more modern way of talking about history? And, what about muslims - the prophet Mohammed lived in about 600 AD. Is it not about 1400 AD for them? The Mayans predicted the end of the world in I believe 2012 or 2016 -I don't recall. Is this an interpretation based on our BC to AD calendar or were they converted to our western calender with the arrival of Christians.
Anyway, my main question is the first one. How and who was behind the resetting of the calendar to zero at AD? And, did it happen at or near that time or perhaps 10, 20 or even a 100 years later? Chiocchi 06:03, 25 December 2006 (UTC) BC
- Sidenote on calader systems: Since the lasting impact of Western culture has effected the rest of the world, most dates have been converted into it's calendar system. However, out of respect for those of other religions, most scholarly systems have changed the names for these two eras to Before Common Era (BCE) and Common Era (CE). Additionally, regarding the Maya calendar, they had a much more accurate accounting of time than the western calculations, which as noted above mistakenly placed the year 0. ~~Dmarney 07:08, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
- As the Anno Domini article says, the BC/AD system was invented by Dionysius Exiguus and popularized by Bede during the so-called Dark Ages. Before that, years were counted since the ascension of a particular emperor or consul, since the founding of Rome or, in Christian circles, since the beginning of the persecutions of Diocletian. Dionysius thought it wasn't a good idea to "honor" Diocletian in this way. So Dionysius counted years from what he thought was the date of Jesus' birth. He was off by a few years. The Islamic calendar counts years from the flight of Muhammad to Medina, while the Jewish calendar counts from the Creation. -- Mwalcoff 08:05, 25 December 2006 (UTC)
Calendar systems are one of those standards where it really doesn't matter what the standard is, so long as everyone uses it. Unfortunately, choosing a religious method for setting up the calendar was certain to cause resentment and other competing systems from other religions. If we could choose one universally agreed to non-religious event as a starting point, say the August 23, 1883 explosion of Krakatoa, we would have had a better chance of gaining universal acceptance for one calendar. StuRat 13:17, 25 December 2006 (UTC)