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Revision as of 22:03, 14 September 2010 by 71.247.247.55 (talk) (I hate pending changes)(diff) ← Previous revision | Latest revision (diff) | Newer revision → (diff)You state that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is a(an) a. conclusion. b. hypothesis. c. experiment. d. analysis.
2.
Which of the following theories are needed to explain why marsupial mammals are found only in Australia? a. theory of evolution b. theory of plate tectonics c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
3.
Biology is the study of a. the land, water, and air on Earth. b. the living world. c. animals and plants only. d. the environment.
4.
What type of ion forms when an atom loses electrons? a. neutral b. positive c. negative d. possibly positive or negative
5.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT true? a. Enzymes work best at a specified pH. b. All enzymes work inside cells. c. Enzymes are proteins. d. Enzymes are organic catalysts.
6.
The lowest level of environmental complexity that includes living and nonliving factors is the a. biome. b. community. c. ecosystem. d. biosphere.
7.
Green plants are a. producers. b. consumers. c. herbivores. d. omnivores.
8.
A bird stalks, kills, and then eats an insect. Based on its behavior, which ecological terms describe the bird? a. herbivore, decomposer b. producer, heterotroph c. carnivore, consumer d. autotroph, herbivore
9.
The loss of heat to space is slowed by a. radiation entering the atmosphere. b. atmospheric gases. c. solar energy. d. the biosphere.
10.
The symbiotic relationship between a flower and the insect that feeds on its nectar is an example of a. mutualism because the flower provides the insect with food, and the insect pollinates the flower. b. parasitism because the insect lives off the nectar from the flower. c. commensalism because the insect does not harm the flower and the flower does not benefit from the relationship. d. predation because the insect feeds on the flower.
11.
Which are two ways a population can decrease in size? a. immigration and emigration b. increased death rate and immigration c. decreased birthrate and emigration d. emigration and increased birthrate
12.
Which factor might NOT contribute to an exponential growth rate in a given population? a. lower death rates b. higher birthrates c. less competition d. reduced resources
13.
A biotic or an abiotic resource in the environment that causes population size to decrease is a a. carrying capacity. b. limiting nutrient. c. limiting factor. d. growth factor.
14.
A disease resulting in the deaths of one-third of a dense population of bats in a cave would be a a. density-dependent limiting factor. b. result of exponential growth. c. density-independent limiting factor. d. nutrient-limiting factor.
15.
When erosion and other factors cause soil to lose its ability to hold water and other nutrients and to support plant life, it is called a. desertification. b. depletion. c. deforestation. d. monoculture.
16.
What is meant by “a library of genetic information” in reference to biodiversity? a. The biodiversity of plants and animals is interesting to read about. b. All living organisms contain genetic information upon which humans can draw for future use. c. Species provide humans with many useful products to enhance our lives. d. We have much to admire in the many forms of life that surround us.
17.
A major factor that negatively affects biodiversity is a. biological magnification. b. habitat fragmentation. c. the green revolution. d. nonrenewable energy.
18.
What would be the most likely effect of an increase in the use of CFCs? a. The ozone layer would suddenly disappear. b. The ozone holes would get smaller. c. The ozone holes would get larger. d. There would be no effect on ozone in the atmosphere.
19.
The cells of multicellular organisms are a. smaller than those of unicellular organisms. b. simpler than those of unicellular organisms. c. specialized to perform particular functions. d. not dependent on one another.
20.
Suppose Priestley repeated his experiment using many kinds of plants besides mint, and that when different plants were placed under the jar, the candle remained lighted for different periods of time. What would be a logical conclusion from these experiments? a. Different plants require different amounts of water. b. Different plants release different amounts of carbon dioxide. c. Different plants require different amounts of light. d. Different plants release different amounts of oxygen.
21.
What are the products of the light-dependent reactions? a. oxygen gas b. ATP c. NADPH d. all of the above
nar001-1.jpg
Figure 8-2
22.
Which of the graphs in Figure 8-2 represents the effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis? a. A b. B c. C d. D
23.
Cyclins are a family of closely related proteins that a. regulate the cell cycle. b. produce p53. c. cause cancer. d. work to heal wounds.
24.
The chemical factors that determine traits are called a. alleles. b. traits. c. genes. d. characters.
25.
If you made a Punnett square showing Gregor Mendel’s cross between true-breeding tall plants and true-breeding short plants, the square would show that the offspring had a. the genotype of one of the parents. b. a phenotype that was different from that of both parents. c. a genotype that was different from that of both parents. d. the genotype of both parents.
26.
If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently, a. crossing-over never occurs between the genes. b. crossing-over always occurs between the genes. c. the genes are probably located far apart from each other. d. the genes are probably located close to each other.
27.
Which of the following statements is false? a. Some genes code for enzymes. b. The instructions for making some proteins are not specified by genes. c. An organism’s inherited traits depend on proteins. d. An organism’s genes determine its inherited traits.
28.
In E. coli, the lac operon controls the a. breakdown of lactose. b. production of lactose. c. breakdown of glucose. d. production of glucose.
29.
Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding? a. horse breeds b. cat breeds c. dog breeds d. all of the above
30.
What is the ultimate source of genetic variability? a. inbreeding b. radiation c. hybridization d. mutations
31.
Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they a. help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds. b. are usually found in hybrids. c. are usually beneficial. d. can be used to enhance the process of hybridization.
32.
Which of the following steps is NOT essential in producing recombinant DNA? a. Cut out a piece of DNA from a DNA molecule. b. Splice a piece of DNA into DNA from another organism. c. Use a restriction enzyme to form sticky ends in DNA. d. Read the DNA sequence of the piece of DNA to be cut and spliced.
33.
The human genome was sequenced a. by sequencing each gene on each chromosome, one at a time. b. using DNA fingerprinting. c. by looking for overlapping regions between sequenced DNA fragments. d. using open reading frames.
34.
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the a. possession of adaptations developed through use. b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness. c. lack of competition within the species. d. choices made by plant and animal breeders.
35.
When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation? a. acquired characteristics b. reproductive isolation c. survival of the fittest d. descent with modification
36.
Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old. b. a detailed record of evolution. c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species. d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.
37.
The two main sources of genetic variation are a. genotypes and phenotypes. b. gene shuffling and mutations. c. single-gene traits and polygenic traits. d. directional selection and disruptive selection.
38.
To be useful as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a a. long period over a wide geographic range. b. long period over a small geographic range. c. short period over a wide geographic range. d. short period over a small geographic range.
39.
Fossilized evidence of Earth’s first forms of life would consist of a. vertebrates from the Precambrian. b. invertebrates from the Precambrian. c. eukaryotes from the Precambrian. d. prokaryotes from the Precambrian.
40.
What does fossil evidence indicate about the order in which these three vertebrates evolved: a bony fish with a jaw, a jawless fish, and a fish with leglike fins? a. The bony fish evolved before the jawless fish. b. The fish with leglike fins was the last to evolve. c. The jawless fish was the last to evolve. d. The fish with leglike fins evolved before the jawless fish.
41.
The second part of a scientific name is unique to each a. order in its class. b. family in its order. c. genus in its family. d. species in its genus.
42.
Before Linnaeus, scientific names were problematic because they were a. too brief to be descriptive. b. very long and difficult to standardize. c. written only in Greek. d. written only in Latin.
43.
The procedure of grouping organisms based on their evolutionary history is called a. traditional classification. b. binomial nomenclature. c. derived characters. d. evolutionary classification.
44.
All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are a. multicellular organisms. b. photosynthetic organisms. c. eukaryotes. d. prokaryotes.
45.
When hyphae of different mating types meet, each hypha forms a a. sporangium. b. zoospore. c. zygospore. d. gametangium.
46.
Which of the following is LEAST related to the others? a. protonema b. sporophyte c. gametophyte d. rhizoid
47.
Seed-bearing plants differ from all other plants in that a. they have vascular tissue. b. they do not have a gametophyte generation. c. their gametes do not require water for fertilization to occur. d. all of the above
48.
Which group of gymnosperms produces seeds that are exposed? a. conifers only b. conifers and cycads only c. conifers and ginkgoes only d. conifers, cycads, gnetophytes, and ginkgoes
49.
There is evidence that Ginkgo biloba a. was the first gymnosperm to have evolved. b. evolved before all other living species of seed plants. c. evolved from an angiosperm. d. has characteristics that differ greatly from its ancestors.
50.
An example of a monocot is a a. tomato. b. lily. c. rose. d. daisy.
51.
The layer of cells that encloses the vascular tissue in the central region of a root is the a. endodermis. b. cortex. c. xylem. d. phloem.
52.
The vascular tissue in a plant’s stem a. has buds. b. is continuous from the roots. c. carries nutrients up the stem but not down. d. consists of nodes.
53.
Unlike roots, stems a. transport water. b. have ground tissue. c. are protected by epidermal cells. d. may carry out photosynthesis.
54.
Which one of the following statements is true? a. The tissues in a monocot stem are different from those in a dicot stem. b. Xylem and phloem cells of monocots are arranged in a cylinder. c. The vascular bundles of monocot and dicot stems are continuous from the root’s vascular cylinder. d. The pith and cortex of dicot stems consist of meristematic cells.
nar002-1.jpg
Figure 23-2
55.
In Figure 23-2, the water pressure in the a. stoma is low. b. stoma is high. c. guard cells is high. d. guard cells is low.
56.
If a plant’s gametophyte is conspicuous, the plant is NOT a a. bryophyte. b. seed plant. c. spore-bearing vascular plant. d. none of the above
57.
A period during which the embryo of a seed is alive but not growing is a. fruit production. b. seed production. c. germination. d. dormancy.
58.
What is true of the seed coat during germination? a. It must crack open. b. It cannot be damaged if germination is to occur. c. It dissolves in water. d. It is absorbed by the growing plant.
59.
When a plant reproduces vegetatively, its offspring a. are genetically different. b. are genetically identical. c. remain dormant until the spring. d. grow from seeds.
60.
Cnidocytes help a cnidarian survive by a. storing food. b. forming colonies. c. paralyzing prey. d. providing movement.
61.
Cnidarians in the class Anthozoa are distinguished by a. having only colonial species. b. having only a polyp form. c. reproducing only sexually. d. obtaining food only from symbionts.
62.
In annelids, nitrogen-containing wastes are eliminated by a. clitella. b. parapodia. c. nephridia. d. gills.
63.
Earthworms benefit gardeners because their tunnels provide passageways for a. leeches. b. polychaetes. c. plant roots and water. d. planarians.
64.
What water conditions could be expected in an area where large numbers of mud-dwelling, filter-feeding, marine annelids are found? a. disturbed sediment b. abundance of bacteria c. abundance of algae d. all of the above
65.
One similarity between a spider and a crayfish is that both animals have a. chelicerae and pedipalps. b. two pairs of antennae. c. chelipeds and mandibles. d. a cephalothorax and an abdomen.
66.
One difference between a nymph and a larva is that a nymph a. can fly, but a larva cannot. b. is specialized for reproduction, but a larva is not. c. resembles an adult of the same species, but a larva does not. d. molts to become a pupa, but a larva molts to become an adult.
67.
Animals of the Cambrian Period typically had all of the following EXCEPT a. body symmetry. b. segmentation. c. some type of skeleton. d. a backbone.
68.
Cephalization refers to the a. division of the body into upper and lower sides. b. concentration of sense organs and nerve cells in the front of the body. c. joining together of specialized cells to form tissues. d. formation of a body cavity between the germ layers.
69.
Most flatworms are small and very thin. Therefore, they can supply their cells with oxygen and remove metabolic wastes by means of a. simple diffusion between body surface and the environment. b. an open circulatory system without a heart. c. an open circulatory system with one heart. d. a closed circulatory system with one heart.
70.
Which of the following is a function of an excretory system? a. eliminating nitrogenous wastes from the body b. exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide with the environment c. gathering and processing information from the environment d. obtaining and digesting food
71.
In fishes with gills, oxygen-rich water enters through the a. mouth and leaves through the openings in the pharynx. b. mouth and leaves through the bladder. c. openings in the pharynx and leaves through the mouth. d. openings in the pharynx and leaves through the anus.
72.
The difference between reptilian eggs and amphibian eggs is that reptilian eggs a. must develop in water. b. always hatch inside the mother’s body. c. are surrounded by a protective shell and membranes. d. do not contain an embryo.
73.
The fact that Archaeopteryx had teeth in its beak and well-developed feathers covering its body suggests that Archaeopteryx was a a. powerful flier. b. transitional species. c. modern bird. d. dinosaur.
74.
Which of the following is NOT a likely mechanism by which migrating birds find their way? a. using stars as guides b. following landmarks c. following the scent of certain flowers d. sensing Earth’s magnetic field
75.
Careless use of DDT harmed birds because it a. killed plants that birds eat. b. killed plants that hide birds from predators. c. made birds’ feathers fall off. d. accumulated in the food chain and poisoned birds.
76.
Which part of a mammal’s brain contains a well-developed cerebral cortex—the center of thinking? a. medulla oblongata b. spinal cord c. cerebrum d. cerebellum
77.
The earliest hominid that belonged to the same genus as modern humans was probably a. Homo habilis. b. Homo neanderthalensis. c. Homo afarensis. d. Homo ergaster.
78.
The main difference between ectotherms and endotherms is a. the source of their body heat. b. how they obtain food to provide for their metabolism. c. whether they control their body temperature. d. whether they conserve or eliminate body heat.
79.
Colonies of bacteria in the intestines of a cow are helpful in a. digesting cellulose fibers. b. producing enzymes that digest meat. c. straining plankton from water. d. tearing and slicing food.
80.
The members of a society a. belong to at least two species. b. exhibit a type of social behavior. c. act independently for each individual’s benefit. d. are usually unrelated to one another.
81.
Nocturnal animals that have a poorly developed sense of smell are most likely to communicate by a. sound signals. b. visual displays. c. pheromones. d. chemical signals.
82.
What types of drugs slow down the activity of the central nervous system? a. stimulants b. depressants c. opiates d. cocaine
83.
The region of the brain that recognizes hunger is the a. brain stem. b. medulla oblongata. c. hypothalamus. d. thalamus.
84.
The main function of the skull is to a. produce blood cells. b. protect the heart and lungs. c. protect the brain. d. act like a lever for muscle attachment.
85.
The periosteum is a a. place for storing fat cells. b. location for red blood cell production. c. tough layer of connective tissue surrounding a bone. d. latticework structure that adds strength to the bone.
86.
Which of the following is NOT true about spongy bone? a. It is less dense than compact bone. b. It is organized into structures that resemble a bridge’s supporting girders. c. It is soft and spongy. d. It adds strength to bone without adding mass.
87.
According to the sliding-filament model, which of the following steps does NOT occur in muscle contraction? a. Myosin and actin filaments come near each other. b. Myosin filaments form cross-bridges with actin filaments. c. Cross-bridges pull the two filaments past each other. d. Actin filaments return to their original positions.
88.
Which of the following is NOT an effect of exercise on the circulatory system? a. Exercise helps keep blood from accumulating in the limbs. b. Exercise prevents veins from stretching out of shape. c. Exercise increases the flow of blood through the blood vessels. d. Exercise increases the size of veins.
89.
The trend of the Food Group Pyramid is that the majority of the food in your diet should be from a. the group(s) at the top. b. the group(s) at the bottom. c. the group(s) in the middle. d. all of the groups in the same proportion.
90.
Which of the following food groups contain few valuable vitamins? a. fats, oils, and sweets b. milk, yogurt, and cheese c. vegetables d. fruit
91.
What does mechanical digestion in the stomach involve? a. absorption of nutrients by villi b. pepsin and bile c. strong muscular contractions d. bile and pancreatic fluid
92.
The endocrine system is made up of a. hormones. b. glands. c. gonads. d. prostaglandins.
93.
During the process of fertilization, which step happens first? a. The sperm’s nucleus enters the egg cell. b. Enzymes break down the protective layer of the egg cell membrane. c. A sperm attaches to a binding site on the egg cell membrane. d. The cell membrane of the egg cell changes.
94.
The placenta connects the a. fetus to the mother’s uterus. b. ectoderm to the endoderm. c. umbilical cord to the mother’s vagina. d. uterus to the cervix.
95.
All of the following usually occur during adolescence EXCEPT a. a growth spurt. b. secondary sex characteristics. c. puberty. d. the appearance of first permanent teeth.
96.
Diseases are caused by a. pathogens. b. cigarette smoke. c. fungi. d. all of the above
97.
The body’s nonspecific defenses against invading pathogens include a. antibiotics. b. mucus, sweat, and tears. c. antibodies. d. killer T cells.
98.
Humoral immunity is carried out by a. killer T cells. b. lymphocytes. c. antibodies. d. macrophages.
99.
An example of an autoimmune disease is a. asthma. b. allergies. c. multiple sclerosis. d. strep throat.
100.
HIV weakens the immune system by killing a. antibodies. b. B cells. c. helper T cells. d. killer T cells.